Rosenritter
New member
OK, here's something that might be a Trinity question. Maybe it's not. From the Nicene creed, specifically on the boldfaced text below:
“And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of His Father before all worlds, God of God, Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father … .”
Why would it say "begotten of his Father before all worlds?" I did a quick search and found a Catholic forum questioning the phrase, but not much from anyone else explaining it. Does anyone understand what that phrase is intended to mean? Or for bonus credit, what scriptural support (if any) that it has?
Just to put this in perspective, it seems to me that Jesus was begotten by the Holy Spirit about two thousand years ago, and that it was an event that happened within space-time, such as "this day." That does have scriptural support:
Luke 1:35 KJV
(35) And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
Acts 13:33 KJV
(33) God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Now I can think of a passage that speaks of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world (Rev 13:8), but rather than this speaking of the specific time, it means that the world was built upon the sacrifice of Christ from the beginning, it was always part of the plan, even when God set Adam and Eve in the garden.
So here's my question: what does the Nicene creed actually mean with that phrase? Is it meant in the sense of Revelation 13:8, or does it intend something different? Does it claim any scriptural reference there?
“And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of His Father before all worlds, God of God, Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father … .”
Why would it say "begotten of his Father before all worlds?" I did a quick search and found a Catholic forum questioning the phrase, but not much from anyone else explaining it. Does anyone understand what that phrase is intended to mean? Or for bonus credit, what scriptural support (if any) that it has?
Just to put this in perspective, it seems to me that Jesus was begotten by the Holy Spirit about two thousand years ago, and that it was an event that happened within space-time, such as "this day." That does have scriptural support:
Luke 1:35 KJV
(35) And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
Acts 13:33 KJV
(33) God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Now I can think of a passage that speaks of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world (Rev 13:8), but rather than this speaking of the specific time, it means that the world was built upon the sacrifice of Christ from the beginning, it was always part of the plan, even when God set Adam and Eve in the garden.
So here's my question: what does the Nicene creed actually mean with that phrase? Is it meant in the sense of Revelation 13:8, or does it intend something different? Does it claim any scriptural reference there?