I have read that post, and I have no idea what you are talking about.
2 Timothy 2:15
I have read that post, and I have no idea what you are talking about.
2 Timothy 2:15
You are not defending your beliefs, you are more like evading.
I answered your question. What more do you want?
That's the best answer I can give you without doing a study on it, like BR.Just trying understand your perspective - you are saying that God is speaking here as a composite (as one essence). Is that correct?
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The Father and then the Son in the theophanies. That would be my best answer without a thorough study.
Who created all things? New testament tells us Jesus is the creator of all.
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The three persons of the Trinity created all things as one God.
He is called the Word of God for a reason.
Psalm 33:6, John 1:1-3
According to the writer of Hebrews, the Father was the one who spoke through the prophets.
Hebrews 1:1-2 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
Removing some of the prepositional phrases, that verse says "God, who spake by the prophets, hath in these last days spoken by His Son". The One who spoke through Isaiah had a Son, making Him the Father.
So, in Isaiah the Father said "I created all things alone and by myself. There is none like me, with me, above me, or beside me". So how do we reconcile the fact that New Testament writings credit Jesus with being God, being the creator, being the Almighty, being the first and last? Very clear - He simply is Immanuel, the one God of the Old Testament, who became a man.
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(Is. 9:6) is your biggest supporting verse...
I keep it at the Body, Soul and Spirit understanding now. This keeps it TriUne. I agree with you... and I see the LOGOS as the physical "Presence" of "The Father"... yet... the "Logos" is clearly the Son. And... the Son says He has to go away for the "Comforter... Holy Spirit" to come.
It would be wrong for me to say that I am "in the Father" as "The Son" is... but I can say I am "in the Son"... and thus the "(Romans 8:9 and Php. 1:19) is "in" me.
Anyhow... this thread is awesome!
- All Respect,
EE
According to the writer of Hebrews, the Father was the one who spoke through the prophets.
Hebrews 1:1-2 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
Removing some of the prepositional phrases, that verse says "God, who spake by the prophets, hath in these last days spoken by His Son". The One who spoke through Isaiah had a Son, making Him the Father.
So, in Isaiah the Father said "I created all things alone and by myself. There is none like me, with me, above me, or beside me". So how do we reconcile the fact that New Testament writings credit Jesus with being God, being the creator, being the Almighty, being the first and last? Very clear - He simply is Immanuel, the one God of the Old Testament, who became a man.
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The "word" was always simply that - the spoken word of God.
Psalms 107:20 He sent his word, and healed them, and delivered them from their destructions.
That wasn't the second person in the Trinity being sent by the first person to heal them. How did God "create the worlds by Jesus Christ"? He sent His literal word and created things. That word became a "Him" in Bethlehem. The "Him" was the Almighty God, who became a man, yet never ceased being the omnipresent God who fills the universe.
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So you dispute John 1:1...He was God and was with God, and John 1:14?
Revelation 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
That "word" He sent became a Him? How was it there was an US in Genesis 1?
"At various times and in diverse manner.." God spoke to the Prophets...the Word who was God from the beginning spoke to the Prophets. The ONE who spoke was the Lord God ....(Father, Son, and Holy Spirit).
Memra? What's that?John was not a Greek philosopher he was a Jewish fisherman and the Hebrew concept of the Memra did not mean the Greek logos. The Memra is the effective power of God, it was the effective power of God that became flesh and dwelt among us. The Bible (the word) did not create the universe. The Memra did.
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How do you explain Jesus saying to His disciples that He is with them, but will be in them (thus calling Himself the Holy Spirit)? Jesus also said, speaking of the Holy Spirit, "I will not leave you comfortless - I will come into you". Pretty plain that the gift of the Holy Spirit is Jesus Himself coming back to live inside His people.
So you dispute John 1:1...He was God and was with God, and John 1:14?
Revelation 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
That "word" He sent became a Him? How was it there was an US in Genesis 1?
John was not a Greek philosopher he was a Jewish fisherman and the Hebrew concept of the Memra did not mean the Greek logos. The Memra is the effective power of God, it was the effective power of God that became flesh and dwelt among us. The Bible (the word) did not create the universe. The Memra did.
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I didn't mention the Bible once....didn't even suggest the Word (who was God) was speaking of the written word of God (Bible). So your point?