Theology Club: Bob Enyart's "The Plot" is he right?

Jerry Shugart

New member
Stop accusing him of being ignorant, you hypocrite.

I don't take orders from you.

Peter was saved upon his death.

You are ignorant if you believe that! Here are Peter's own words so if you are right then you must prove that you know more than Peter:

"God, who knows the heart, showed that he accepted them by giving the Holy Spirit to them, just as he did to us. He did not discriminate between us and them, for he purified their hearts by faith. Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear? No! We believe it is through the grace of our Lord Jesus that we are saved, just as they are (Acts 15:8-11).​
 

Right Divider

Body part
That's not even a complete sentence!
So now you're the grammar police too?

So are you going to still argue that Peter was not even saved by the time of Acts 15?
It depends on what type of salvation you're talking about. Are you still going to argue that 1 Peter 1:5 is NOT talking about a future salvation?

Was Peter not saved by the "good news" about Christ when he believed the "good news"spoken by Paul here?:
"For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" (Ro.1:16).​
Peter was a believer before Paul received the revelation of the mystery.
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
It depends on what type of salvation you're talking about. Are you still going to argue that 1 Peter 1:5 is NOT talking about a future salvation?

That is the same exact salvation which Paul also placed in the future:

"And that, knowing the time, that now it is high time to awake out of sleep: for now is our salvation nearer than when we believed" (Ro.13:11).​

Peter was a believer before Paul received the revelation of the mystery.

So?

Peter knew that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of the Living God, even while the Lord walked on the earth (Mt.16:16) so he was born of God by that time:

"Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him. By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God, and keep his commandments. For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous. For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith. Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?" (1 Jn.5:1-5).​

"He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. He came unto his own, and his own received him not. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the children of God, even to them that believe on his name: Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God" (Jn.1:10-13).​
 

Right Divider

Body part
That is the same exact salvation which Paul also placed in the future:
"And that, knowing the time, that now it is high time to awake out of sleep: for now is our salvation nearer than when we believed" (Ro.13:11).​
So?
Do you think that I think that Paul and Peter taught NOTHING in common?
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
Do you think that I think that Paul and Peter taught NOTHING in common?

One of the common things which are found in the Hebrew epistles and Paul's epistles is the truth that when the Lord Jesus appears then all of the living saints will put on bodies just like the body of the Lord Jesus. The following verse is in regard to the rapture, a mystery truth that only applies to those in the Body of Christ:

"Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed" (1 Cor.15:51-52).​

This will happen when the Lord descends from heaven and the living saints will put on glorious bodies just like the body of the Lord Jesus. In the following verse John is speaking about that same exact thing:

"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is"
(1 Jn.3:2).​

Those who received John's epistles were taught that they would be alive when the Lord appears--"when he shall appear...we shall see him as he is."

They were also taught that "when he shall appear... we shall be like him."

The events of which are spoken of at 1 John 3:2 John can only be in regard to the rapture. And according to Paul Sadler, the past President of the Berean Bible Society and a person who agrees with your ideas about the Hebrew epistles, only the members of the Body of Christ will be raptured:

"The 'secret' resurrection that will take place at the Rapture should never be confused with the 'first' resurrection at the Second Coming of Christ. Those who rightly divide the Word of truth now see that only the members of the Body of Christ will be raised at the Rapture"
[emphasis mine] (Sadler, Exploring the Unsearchable Riches of Christ [Stephens Point, WI: Worzalla Publishing Co., 1993], 167).​
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
Paul's epistle which is traditionally known as "the First Epistle to the Corinthians" was not just addressed to those of the church at Corinth but also to "all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord":

"Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother, Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours" (1 Cor.1:1-2).​

The words found in this epistle are addressed to every single believer who lived at the time when it was written. John Nelson Darby, often called the father of modern dispensationalism, understood that to be true, writing the following:

"He addresses the assembly of God at Corinth, adding a character (the application of which is evident when we consider the contents of the epistle) 'sanctified in Christ Jesus.' Afterwards the universality of the application of the doctrine and instructions of the epistle, and of its authority over all Christians, wherever they might be, is brought forward in this address" (John Nelson Darby, Commentary at 1 Corinthians 1:2).​

With these things in mind, we can understand what Paul said later in the same epistle applied to every single believer when the epistle was written:

"For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit"
(1 Cor.12:13).​

When Paul used the words "are we ALL baptized into one Body" that can only mean that the Twelve were included and therefore they are members of the Body of Christ. Therefore, we can understand that the doctrine found in the Hebrew epistles applies to those in the Body and contain valuable information for those in the Body.

However, some people on this forum say that only 13 epistles are for the Body while in fact there are 22. If you believe them then you are being short changed!
 
Last edited:

Right Divider

Body part
Paul's epistle which is traditionally known as "the First Epistle to the Corinthians" was not just addressed to those of the church at Corinth but also to "all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord":

"Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother, Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours" (1 Cor.1:1-2).​

The words found in this epistle are addressed to every single believer who lived at the time when it was written. John Nelson Darby, often called the father of modern dispensationalism, understood that to be true, writing the following:

"He addresses the assembly of God at Corinth, adding a character (the application of which is evident when we consider the contents of the epistle) 'sanctified in Christ Jesus.' Afterwards the universality of the application of the doctrine and instructions of the epistle, and of its authority over all Christians, wherever they might be, is brought forward in this address" (John Nelson Darby, Commentary at 1 Corinthians 1:2).​

With these things in mind, we can understand what Paul said later in the same epistle applied to every single believer when the epistle was written:

"For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit"
(1 Cor.12:13).​

When Paul used the words "are we ALL baptized into one Body" that can only mean that the Twelve were included and therefore they are members of the Body of Christ. Therefore, we can understand that the doctrine found in the Hebrew epistles applies to those in the Body and contain valuable information for those in the Body.

However, some people on this forum say that only 13 epistles are for the Body while in fact there are 22. If you believe them then you are being short changed!
Why does James exclude gentiles as the audience of his epistle?

Jas 1:1 KJV James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
Why does James exclude gentiles as the audience of his epistle?

Why does Paul exclude everyone but Timothy in the epistles written to him?

Why do you continue to run and hide from what I quoted from 1 Corinthians?

All I see from your post is an effort to prove what Paul said in that epistle is in error and that you know more than Paul does!
 

Right Divider

Body part
Why does Paul exclude everyone but Timothy in the epistles written to him?

Why do you continue to run and hide from what I quoted from 1 Corinthians?

All I see from your post is an effort to prove what Paul said in that epistle is in error and that you know more than Paul does!
I find your venom pretty funny.

Paul is writing to TIMOTHY and we can learn from it IN THAT CONTEXT.

James is writing to the TWELVE TRIBES and we can learn from it IN THAT CONTEXT.

The author of Hebrews is writing to the HEBREWS and we can learn from it IN THAT CONTEXT.

P.S. Timothy is a member of the body of Christ and not the twelve tribes are Israel. Israel is not the body of Christ and the body of Christ is not Israel.
 
Last edited:

Jerry Shugart

New member
I find your venom pretty funny.

The funniest thing I have seen in a long time is your silence concerning what Paul wrote in his epistle which is traditionally known as "the First Epistle to the Corinthians." That epistle was not just addressed to those of the church at Corinth but also to "all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord":

"Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother, Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours" (1 Cor.1:1-2).​

The words found in this epistle are addressed to every single believer who lived at the time when it was written. John Nelson Darby, often called the father of modern dispensationalism, understood that to be true, writing the following:

"He addresses the assembly of God at Corinth, adding a character (the application of which is evident when we consider the contents of the epistle) 'sanctified in Christ Jesus.' Afterwards the universality of the application of the doctrine and instructions of the epistle, and of its authority over all Christians, wherever they might be, is brought forward in this address" (John Nelson Darby, Commentary at 1 Corinthians 1:2).​

With these things in mind, we can understand what Paul said later in the same epistle applied to every single believer when the epistle was written:

"For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit"
(1 Cor.12:13).​

When Paul used the words "are we ALL baptized into one Body" that can only mean that the Twelve were included and therefore they are members of the Body of Christ. Therefore, we can understand that the doctrine found in the Hebrew epistles applies to those in the Body and contain valuable information for those in the Body.

Instead of actually saying anything intelligent about these things all you do is try to prove that Paul was in error when He said that "we are ALL baptized into onre Body."

You say that you believe Paul but the only thing I see from you is that you will believe him if what he says doesn't contradict what some people told you! You do not believe him when he spoke of others who were "in Christ" before He was because someone told you that Paul was the first member of the Body of Christ.

Timothy is a member of the body of Christ and not the twelve tribes are Israel. Israel is not the body of Christ and the body of Christ is not Israel.

Do you not even understand that by the time the Hebrew epistles were written Israel had been temporarily set aside? According to your ideas the believing remnant out of Israel Israel went down with a sinking ship despite the fact that Paul said that they were made members of the Body of Christ:

"But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby"
(Eph.2:13-16).​

Here is even more evidence from the pen of Paul that you can ignore!
 

Right Divider

Body part
The funniest thing I have seen in a long time is your silence concerning what Paul wrote in his epistle which is traditionally known as "the First Epistle to the Corinthians." That epistle was not just addressed to those of the church at Corinth but also to "all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord":

"Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother, Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours" (1 Cor.1:1-2).​

The words found in this epistle are addressed to every single believer who lived at the time when it was written. John Nelson Darby, often called the father of modern dispensationalism, understood that to be true, writing the following:

"He addresses the assembly of God at Corinth, adding a character (the application of which is evident when we consider the contents of the epistle) 'sanctified in Christ Jesus.' Afterwards the universality of the application of the doctrine and instructions of the epistle, and of its authority over all Christians, wherever they might be, is brought forward in this address" (John Nelson Darby, Commentary at 1 Corinthians 1:2).​

With these things in mind, we can understand what Paul said later in the same epistle applied to every single believer when the epistle was written:

"For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit"
(1 Cor.12:13).​

When Paul used the words "are we ALL baptized into one Body" that can only mean that the Twelve were included and therefore they are members of the Body of Christ. Therefore, we can understand that the doctrine found in the Hebrew epistles applies to those in the Body and contain valuable information for those in the Body.

Instead of actually saying anything intelligent about these things all you do is try to prove that Paul was in error when He said that "we are ALL baptized into onre Body."

You say that you believe Paul but the only thing I see from you is that you will believe him if what he says doesn't contradict what some people told you! You do not believe him when he spoke of others who were "in Christ" before He was because someone told you that Paul was the first member of the Body of Christ.

Do you not even understand that by the time the Hebrew epistles were written Israel had been temporarily set aside? According to your ideas the believing remnant out of Israel Israel went down with a sinking ship despite the fact that Paul said that they were made members of the Body of Christ:

"But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby"
(Eph.2:13-16).​

Here is even more evidence from the pen of Paul that you can ignore!
What about James 1:1? What is your story there?
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
What about James 1:1? What is your story there?

Here is what Paul wrote:

"Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God. Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called"
(1 Cor.7:19-20).​

Since James was given the ministry to the circumcision then it was natural to address them as being "tribes" out of Israel. Even Paul continued to refer to himself as a Jew.

Now that I have answered you please answer me about Paul's words here:

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me"
(Ro.16:7).​

It is not difficult to understand that when Paul uses the words "in Christ" he is referring to being in the Body of Christ, as witnessed what he said here:

"For as we have many members in one body, and all members have not the same office: So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another" (Ro.12:4-5).​

We can also know that when Paul speaks of others being "in Christ" the term "in Christ" always means the same thing:

"Therefore, from now on, we regard no one according to the flesh. Even though we have known Christ according to the flesh, yet now we know Him thus no longer. Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new"
(2 Cor.5:16-17).​

Of course the "new creation" is the New Man, the Body of Christ which Paul speaks of here:

"For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby" (Eph.2:14-16).​

Since you don't believe that the twelve were in the Body of Christ then tell me what you think that the word "in Christ" refer to in the following verse:

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me"
(Ro.16:7).​
 

Right Divider

Body part
Here is what Paul wrote:

"Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God. Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called"
(1 Cor.7:19-20).​

Since James was given the ministry to the circumcision then it was natural to address them as being "tribes" out of Israel. Even Paul continued to refer to himself as a Jew.
So even though you recognize this distinction, you still think that everything in the book applies equally to all believers indiscriminately? This is the problem with your bizarre theories.

Now that I have answered you please answer me about Paul's words here:

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me"
(Ro.16:7).​

It is not difficult to understand that when Paul uses the words "in Christ" he is referring to being in the Body of Christ, as witnessed what he said here:

"For as we have many members in one body, and all members have not the same office: So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another" (Ro.12:4-5).​
You make a false assumption and then run off to find support for it.

The one body came AFTER those OTHERS were already in Christ. I'm sorry that your preconceived ideas get in your way.
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
So even though you recognize this distinction, you still think that everything in the book applies equally to all believers indiscriminately?

Paul makes it plain that both Jews and Gentiles are baptized into the Body of Christ:

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.and Gentiles are baptized into the Body of Christ" (1 Cor.12:13).​

The one body came AFTER those OTHERS were already in Christ. I'm sorry that your preconceived ideas get in your way.

I asked you what meaning you put on the word "in Christ" in the following verse but you did not even attempt to answer:

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me" (Ro.16:7).​

I know this is a very difficult question for you to answer because of your preconceived ideas so I will give you a hint. Paul wrote:

"For as we have many members in one body, and all members have not the same office: So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another"
(Ro.12:4-5).​

Now I will ask you one more time. What is the meaning which you place on the words "in Christ" in the following passage?:

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me" (Ro.16:7).​
 

Right Divider

Body part
Here is what Paul wrote:

"Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God. Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called"
(1 Cor.7:19-20).​

Since James was given the ministry to the circumcision then it was natural to address them as being "tribes" out of Israel.
BTW... James was referring to the actual tribes of Israel and NOT the '"tribes" out of Israel.'

You are very dishonest with your quoting of the TRIBES as if James was NOT talking about the LITERAL tribes of ISRAEL scattered into gentiles lands.
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
BTW... James was referring to the actual tribes of Israel and NOT the '"tribes" out of Israel.'

You are very dishonest with your quoting of the TRIBES as if James was NOT talking about the LITERAL tribes of ISRAEL scattered into gentiles lands.

I explained my view but your ideas deny the fact that be the time the Hebrew epistles were written the nation of Israel had been temporarily set aside. Or perhaps you are just ignorant of that fact?

According to your ideas Paul could not possibly be a member of the Body of Christ because he said he is of the tribe of Benjamin: "I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin" (Ro.11:1).

Besides that, I backed up what I said by showing that the believing remnant out of Israel were made members of the Body of Christ:

"But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby" (Eph.2:13-16).​

Instead of actually addressing the evidence I presented you accuse me of being "dishonest."
 

Right Divider

Body part
I explained my view but your ideas deny the fact that be the time the Hebrew epistles were written the nation of Israel had been temporarily set aside. Or perhaps you are just ignorant of that fact?
  • James was one of the earliest NT books written and was specifically addressed to the TWELVE TRIBES OF ISRAEL. Your attempt to make it the twelve "tribes" does not change that.
  • Romans was written MUCH LATER. THIS is were WE learn of the setting aside of Israel.
  • Even if the nation was set aside at that time, the remnant remained... particularly the twelve apostles that will sit on twelve thrones judging the TWELVE TRIBES OF ISRAEL. The little flock was the BELIEVING NATION and yet you think that God changed their calling and switched them into the body of Christ which was FIRST REVEALED to the apostle Paul.
  • You seem to believe that the body of Christ was formed LONG before it actually was per your repeated misuse of "in Christ before me". This is a common tactic of anti-dispensationalists. You share this in common with them.
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
You seem to believe that the body of Christ was formed LONG before it actually was per your repeated misuse of "in Christ before me". This is a common tactic of anti-dispensationalists. You share this in common with them.

You are ignorant of the fact that almost all dispensationalists understand and teach that other Christians were in the Body before Paul. Even the giants of Mid Acts dispensationalism, men such as John Nelson Darby, Sir Robert Anderson, and J. C. O'Hair all taught that the Twelve are members of the Body of Christ.

Despite your ignorance about that you continue to run and hide concerning the meaning of the words "in Christ":

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me" (Ro.16:7).​

It is not difficult to understand that when Paul uses the words "in Christ" he is referring to being in the Body of Christ, as witnessed what he said here:

"For as we have many members in one body, and all members have not the same office: So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another"
(Ro.12:4-5).​

We can also know that when Paul speaks of others being "in Christ" the term "in Christ" always means the same thing:

"Therefore, from now on, we regard no one according to the flesh. Even though we have known Christ according to the flesh, yet now we know Him thus no longer. Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new"
(2 Cor.5:16-17).​

If "anyone" is in Christ he is a new creation.

Of course the "new creation" is the New Man, the Body of Christ which Paul speaks of here:

"For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby" (Eph.2:14-16).​

Again, if "anyone" is in Christ he is a new creation and we can see that Paul names two people who he says were "in Christ" before he was:

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me" (Ro.16:7).​

But according to your ideas even those these two men were "in Christ" before Paul you say that they were not in the Body before Paul despite the fact that Paul himself said thsat if "anyone" is in Christ he is a new creation. And you also run and hide from the following words of Paul who makes it plain that the Body of Christ is indeed in Christ:

"For as we have many members in one body, and all members have not the same office: So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another"
(Ro.12:4-5).​

Even if the nation was set aside at that time, the remnant remained

Yes, there was one remnant out of Israel and they were made members of the Body of Christ:

"For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby" (Eph.2:14-16).​

You just make up a second remnant and according to your made-up ideas the middle wall of partition still stands between that remnant and the Gentile believers despite the fact that Paul said nothing about a second remnant.
 

Right Divider

Body part
You are ignorant of the fact that almost all dispensationalists understand and teach that other Christians were in the Body before Paul. Even the giants of Mid Acts dispensationalism, men such as John Nelson Darby, Sir Robert Anderson, and J. C. O'Hair all taught that the Twelve are members of the Body of Christ.
If numbers of adherents determines truth, I'd be a Roman Catholic or a Muslim.

Despite your ignorance about that you continue to run and hide concerning the meaning of the words "in Christ":

"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me" (Ro.16:7).​

It is not difficult to understand that when Paul uses the words "in Christ" he is referring to being in the Body of Christ, as witnessed what he said here:
No, your assertion does not become truth because you repeat it frequently or someone else believes it too.
 

Jerry Shugart

New member
If numbers of adherents determines truth, I'd be a Roman Catholic or a Muslim.

That does not cover-up your ignorance of what you said here:

You seem to believe that the body of Christ was formed LONG before it actually was per your repeated misuse of "in Christ before me". This is a common tactic of anti-dispensationalists. You share this in common with them.

You accuse me of a repeated misuse of "in Christ before me." I quoted verses which demonstrate that the words "in Christ" speak of the Body being in Christ:

"For as we have many members in one body, and all members have not the same office: So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another" (Ro.12:4-5).​

ONE BODY IN CHRIST. See that? How long will you IGNORE THAT? How long will you continue to accuse me of a REPEATED MISUSE OF 'IN CHRIST BEFORE ME'?

If I misused the phrase and since you are bold enough to accuse me of doing that then you must know what the words "in Christ" mean in that verse.

What do they mean?
 
Top