If you go a bit further down to verse 30, that's where it says this.
I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.
And every day we ask for the kingdom to come into our hearts, once we have the holy spirit, then Christ by the spirit through us, does the judging by the word.
What do you believe about the following verses?
Verily, verily, I say unto thee, When thou wast young, thou girdedst thyself, and walkedst whither thou wouldest: but when thou shalt be old, thou shalt stretch forth thy hands, and another shall gird thee, and carry thee whither thou wouldest not. This spake he, signifying by what death he should glorify God. And when he had spoken this, he saith unto him, Follow me
By the way, regarding the trinity, you touched upon this (below), it doesn't sound like God is Jesus to me, but rather saying before God... And our lord Jesus Christ
2 Timothy 4:1
before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ
And here's how it's written in other chapters, which go totally against the trinity.
That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory
1 Peter 1
Blessed*be*the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ
There are more verses that say the same, but I need to go tidy up and haven't got time to look, I shouldn't even be on here now!
There are many passages that use the pattern "God, and Christ" (or similar to that formula) that I describe as being in parallel. I understand that you may see those as being sequential. However, you must at least admit that they could be parallel, using two forms of address for the same thing. We have the example in Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last, and beside me there is no God." (KJV). There cannot be two different LORDS because Deuteronomy 6:4 says "The LORD our God is one LORD." Therefore, there is precedent for referring to God by multiple titles in parallel.
So when you read passages that say "before God, and our Lord Jesus Christ" you must allow that this could very well be naming God in heaven above and also as we knew him on the earth below, the same God, not two different people. How would you prove which way it should be? I would say that is solved by other passages and evidences. Even that Isaiah 44:6 which tells us that the LORD is the "first and the last, beside me there is no God" is invoked by Christ in Revelation four separate times, in reference to himself.
John 10:33 KJV
(33) The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
John 20:28-29 KJV
(28) And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
(29) Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
When I read Thomas in that passage above, I think that he was speaking in parallel. He knew Jesus was one person, not two, but yet he applied two different titles. Jesus was his "Lord" but lest that be misinterpreted he was even more clear, he acknowledged Jesus as his God.
Revelation 21:6-7 KJV
(6) And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely.
(7) He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son.
Revelation 22:13-16 KJV
(13) I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.
(14) Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
(15) For without are dogs, and sorcerers, and whoremongers, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loveth and maketh a lie.
(16) I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.
... almost forgot a passage you asked me about. What do I think about when Jesus foretold the manner of death of Peter? No particular thought, I would need to know what aspect you meant. Peter was taken and killed for his faith, even crucified.
When you read 1 Peter 1:3,
1 Peter 1:3 KJV
(3) Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
Do you read that and think that it is speaking of two different people? I mean, two people plus Christ? A God of Jesus Christ, a separate Father of Jesus Christ, and then Jesus Christ himself? What I mean to point out that you must recognize that the form of address can duplicate itself without requiring multiple people.
If the God of Jesus Christ is the same as the Father of Jesus Christ, that can still be the same person. By extension, the God and Father of our Lord can still be our Lord. When Jesus referred to God in heaven, he called him "Father" in relation to himself on earth, "the Son of God." References to the "Father" are always in heaven, such as "Our Father which art in heaven" (the Lord's prayer). Reference to the Son of God is with regard to the Word walking among us in the flesh "the Son of God, which should come into the world" (John 11:27) and "manifested" (1 John 3:8).
It may seem a little confusing, but I keep it in perspective by remembering that God is big enough to be in more than one place at the same time. There is a parable of an elephant and three blind men. One thinks the elephant must be like a tree, another like a snake, and so forth. They were only grabbing part of the animal and weren't seeing how the whole thing worked together. One elephant, yet it has different forms.
So start with what is known, and what is concrete, and let the rest of the pieces fall into place from there. Just like working with a puzzle.