NWL
Active member
I answered in part because of trying to decrease words. Paul is Paul, the people who live in the house includes Paul, there may or may not be anyone else other than Paul included in the people in the house, and as you phrased it James seemed like a different person. You're not proving your point here.
Good, thank you for actually answering the question. As you said "as phrased it James seemed like a different person", now the question is how did I phrase it? Exactly the same way Revelation phrases it!
John...May you have undeserved kindness and peace from “the One who is and who was and who is coming,” and from the seven spirits that are before his throne, and from Jesus Christ “the Faithful Witness,” “the firstborn from the dead,” and “the Ruler of the kings of the earth.” To him who loves us and who set us free from our sins by means of his own blood—
Rosenritter may you have blessings from Paul and from the people who live in his house and from James the worlds strongest man, the Olympic athelite, the winner of the gold, he James made us enter into the trials for the worlds strongest man so that we could be henchmen to his Father and hero"
You read my analogy and were able to work out that James was not Paul, yet you claimed Jesus in Rev 1:4,5 was the same person as "the one coming" even though the grammar is exactly the same. For some reason you apply what is said differently in Rev 1:4-6 when compared to my paralleled analogy.
This is exactly what I meant when I said you didn't understand grammar, btw that isn't an insult its an observation, there's a difference in highlighting a persons fault and insulting someone to try and hurt them or their argument, I'm not trash talking.
There are not two ones coming. The context should make this plainly evident. It is not "they are coming" or "we are coming" but "the one who is coming." The ONEwho is coming. One, not two, one. If two special persons were coming, it wouldn't use an identification of one.
Of course not, there is one coming, the Father, who comes by means of his son, thus scripture makes mention on Jesus coming too. I've already shown you how the bible language often talks regarding a singular person even though two persons are in fact involved. As we know Jesus judges the world, but in fact it is the Father who is ultimate judges since it is him who judges men through or by means of his son, compare Acts 17:31 with John 5:22. Thus since Jesus does all things for the Father and it is Jehovah who comes according to Isaiah 40:10 with Jesus being the person who the Father acts through, Jesus is also spoken of as coming.
In your haste to provoke the answer you had anticipated answering, maybe you didn't notice that I never said "seven spirits" were restatements of "the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come." Stay focused.
Then this weakens your argument even more since no bible writer constructs sentences like that! You saying in effect that the writer said "blessing from Jesus, and from the seven spirits before his [Jesus] throne, AND from Jesus". Give me an example where any bible writer has a sentence in such a word order. You're grasping at straws.
You don't understand grammar, I've shown you how Jesus was shown as separate from "the one coming" by the grammar which you've chosen to ignore and not address, all you say is "they're titles restatements" without realising according to the grammar they simply cannot be.No trash talk please? Let's be better than that. In the face of the statements of sheer equivalence, there is nothing wrong grammatically. It may not be the way YOU speak, but it is allowed to be the way John or God speaks.
How is this trash talk???? It's an observation not an insult.
Spoiler
1. Revelation 1:9, clearly parallel "for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ."
2. Revelation 12:17, also parallel, "which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ."
3. Revelation 14:12, parallel, "they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus."
4. Revelation 20:4, parallel, "for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God"
The problem with your challenge is that you deny that God is God when it hurts your argument. Is Alpha and Omega God? If I understand your argument correctly, it is that whenever someone says "I" that it is like a round-robin chorus of people popping in and out, so when you discard every other means of identification other than name (like the unique titles in Isaiah, and so forth) and then you discard the names, there is nothing that could ever be said that could ever prove anything by your standard.
Revelation 22:16, SHEER EQUIVALENCE. "I come quickly; and my reward is with me (v 12) I am Alpha and Omega.... (v 13) I Jesus (v 16)" ... and who is it that John understands the speaker to have been? Who is coming? "Even so, come, Lord Jesus (v 20)" ... or do you now argue that verse 12 is a different speaker than verse 13, because the word "I" was used?
2. Revelation 12:17, also parallel, "which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ."
3. Revelation 14:12, parallel, "they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus."
4. Revelation 20:4, parallel, "for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God"
The problem with your challenge is that you deny that God is God when it hurts your argument. Is Alpha and Omega God? If I understand your argument correctly, it is that whenever someone says "I" that it is like a round-robin chorus of people popping in and out, so when you discard every other means of identification other than name (like the unique titles in Isaiah, and so forth) and then you discard the names, there is nothing that could ever be said that could ever prove anything by your standard.
Revelation 22:16, SHEER EQUIVALENCE. "I come quickly; and my reward is with me (v 12) I am Alpha and Omega.... (v 13) I Jesus (v 16)" ... and who is it that John understands the speaker to have been? Who is coming? "Even so, come, Lord Jesus (v 20)" ... or do you now argue that verse 12 is a different speaker than verse 13, because the word "I" was used?
My argument is not every time "I" is used the speaker changes, I've previously stated at times when "I" is used with with a persons name after the use of "I" does it indicate a change of speaker. In Rev 22 for example this only takes place twice, once in v8 and then in v16.
The verse you quoted above clearly show Jesus separate from God. I also showed you previously how Jesus as the lamb was the one who takes the scroll from the one who is was and is coming in Rev 1:8, this is clear and undeniable proof that he is not the one mentioned in Rev 1:8. Compare Read Rev 4:8-5:7.
... you deny that Jesus was?
... you deny that Jesus is?
... you deny that Jesus is coming?
... or you are arguing that there are more than one "who was, and is, and is to come?" that you can tag team in and out in a grand game of keep-away?
I deny that Jesus is the one identified as the "the One who is and who was and who is coming" as he is clearly spoken of as separate from this one in Rev 1:5 and Rev 4:8-5:7. As of yet you've shown no credible evidence to suggest that he is that one. Your claim of the "restatement" is not scriptural sound nor is it grammatically sound.
TWO judges? Surely you understand the pickle this creates. You cannot have more than one judge of the living and the dead. The U.S. Supreme Court may use a council and vote against each other, but God does not share his glory with another. Besides, Jesus says there is one judge, not two judges.
Spoiler
John 12:48 KJV
[/COLOR]Did you notice that Jesus speaks of himself in the third person above? It's important that you acknowledge this. Your position seems to require that God and Jesus are not allowed to speak of themselves in the third person...
2 Timothy 4:1 KJV
Compare with Acts 10:42, "Jesus" is the judge of the quick and the dead, Hebrews 12:23, yet Paul says "God the Judge of all." You do not have more than one judge, there is one judge, any presumption of a panel of judges is preposterous. God does not judge "through" a proxy, he doesn't hire this duty out.
John 5:22 KJV
(22) For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
[/COLOR]Did you notice that Jesus speaks of himself in the third person above? It's important that you acknowledge this. Your position seems to require that God and Jesus are not allowed to speak of themselves in the third person...
2 Timothy 4:1 KJV
Compare with Acts 10:42, "Jesus" is the judge of the quick and the dead, Hebrews 12:23, yet Paul says "God the Judge of all." You do not have more than one judge, there is one judge, any presumption of a panel of judges is preposterous. God does not judge "through" a proxy, he doesn't hire this duty out.
John 5:22 KJV
(22) For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
The Father does things through Jesus, thus both are spoken of doing a action, yet ulitamtly there is only one action initiator. God is judge but entrusted all judging to the son, this doesn't mean that God doesn't judge it just means that God judges through Jesus Christ. As you showed with John 5:22, the Father doesn't judge anyone, this is speaking of judging directly however, God doesn't judge anyone directly since he entrusted all the judging to the son. Scripture cleary mentions that God -with the God separate from Jesus in the verse- judging through or by means of Jesus.
(Acts 17:30, 31) "..God.. Because he has set a day on which he purposes to judge the inhabited earth in righteousness by a man whom he has appointed, and he has provided a guarantee to all men by resurrecting him from the dead..”
Thus the Father judges and so too does the Son. The Father does not directly judge anyone since he entrusted all the judging to the son. There are two judges, Jesus and the Father, but only one ultimate judge, the Father.
False. You have alleged that "the Father" is the source of creation NOT Jesus. Not shown. Hopefully you understand the difference between the concepts of "allege" and "shown." My bible says that Jesus is the source of all creation. It says that flat-out.
John 1:3 KJV
(3) All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Notice that it does not say "excepting that he was made himself."
We must not forget context and how the bible uses language at times. According to your bible when looking at Hebrews 1:1,2, which has God the father identified since it shows him acting by/through his son, who is the initiator according to the verse God or the Son?
"..God.. Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds.." (Hebrews 1:1,2)
The priesthood is different. I have fought hand to hand with clubs and shields, and I have fought with scripture and words. The one warrior (of clubs and shields) that deals with one type of situation is not appropriate for the other type of situation. The rules of the game being changed, a different warrior was required. I was the person of each warrior in this example. Yet each warrior is not the same type of warrior. If you understand the means of honest argument, then stop chasing a failed point. You would need for there to be no interpretation other than your own to justify any dogmatic persistence here. You don't have that.
You keep imposing your own set of rules an regulations on scripture that are simply baseless, in what sense is Jesus being a high priest in Abraham day (according to you) different to him being high priest today?
No, you are actually reaching very hard and far in an attempt to say that the angels that came to Lot in Sodom called themselves "the LORD" (Jehovah) and it's becoming a bit absurd. It says "The LORD" spoke to Abraham. It does not say "the LORD" spoke to Lot. Take 100 people who aren't Jehovah's Witnesses, keep other Jehovah's Witnesses out of the room to avoid prompting or harassment, have them read that passage. At least ninety-nine are not going to say that the angels called themselves Jehovah. I allow for perhaps one because there's always an oddball for every survey.
That is not my argument at all at the moment. Again, my claim is that the angel meant what they sent and weren't lying. Your argument is that the Angels did not mean what they literally said but were speaking as part of a team, something that NOT once happens in scripture. My claim can be backed up in scripture yours cannot.
The angels said God had sent THEM to destroy the city and that THEY were about to destroy it, scripture then says Jehovah rained down fire from Jehovah in the heavens. Either there are two Jehovah's which is impossible since Jehovah is One (deut 6:4) or the angels were spoken as Jehovah since they were his representatives, thus Jehovah (angels) rained down fire from Jehovah in the heaven (one God Jehovah).
Malachi 2:10 KJV
(10) Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?
Mark 12:32 KJV
(32) And the scribe said unto him, Well, Master, thou hast said the truth: for there is one God; and there is none other but he:
Jesus speaks of God judging among the gods. There are two types here. God, and the gods being judged. Which one is Jesus? Jesus is not "a god" ... "that shall die like men." Jesus is not "the god of this world." Nor is he a "god of wood or stone." Nor is he "gods ascending out of the earth" (1 Samuel 28:13). In the context that we are speaking, there is only ONE GOD.
There are others in the bible who are spoken of as god/gods other than the one God, these are a type of secondary god(s). 1 Cor 8:5,6 clearly demonstrates this. God judging among the Gods as mentioned in Psalms 82:6 is not a scripture that is all encompassing in relation to what type of gods there are. Moreover, Psalms 82:6 is not talking about God judging the gods but rather that God judges amongst the gods. God divinely appointed men to judge the nation of Israel, these men are the ones referred to as gods in John 10:34 and Psalms 82:1 that Jesus quotes.
You say Jesus was not that type of god mentioned in Psalms 82:1 yet that is the very type of god Jesus said he was when defending himself, see John 10:32-36.
John 20:28 KJV
(28) And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
This does not prove Jesus is the one God anymore than 2 Cor 4:4 proves Satan is the one God.
Your argument is that "Jesus is God" but "there is more than one God." I say, "There's only One God, Ma'am"
It is not my argument its the bible argument. There is only one God in the ultimate sense, Jesus himself said only the Father was that God (John 17:3), 1 Cor 8:6 says the Father is that One God, however the verses preceding 1 Cor 8:6 state there are others that are called God, since Jesus was not the One God in v6 then he must be one of those other gods mentioned.
According to scriptures how many saviours are there? See Isaiah 43:11.
You are concerned about hard copies? How many different Jesus's were there then?
1. On the cross.
2. One in the garden after his resurrection.
3. Another time when he walked with them on the road to Emmaeus
4. Another one when he appeared in the midst of them after that
5. Yet another time when Peter swam out to him from the boat...
Hard copies aren't what determines the essence of a person. If you think it's about form, then God in heaven is obviously different than Jesus on earth, but by the same factor you have at least five Jesus's. God isn't defined by FORM.
Let's remain focused now, my question here does not involve Jesus. Is a copy of the declaration of independence the first initial written declaration of Independence?
Spoiler
When you ask a question, you should be prepared for the answer. The answer is it is impossible for me to tell which one is the "original" and which one is the "copy." Thoughts and memories are the same in your example. Each Rosenritter remembers there being just one before, and then sees another, and sees one blown up. Rosenritter, being myself in this case, understands the dilemma of not knowing for sure which was original, but also understands that it's an absurd thing to wonder about after the fact, that it doesn't make any difference, and now takes that disruptor beam and shoots you before you can try to kill me again.
Impossible to tell. I shoot you rather than falling into a Marvel Comics style fugue about "am I a clone? I'll go sulk now."
Impossible to tell. I shoot you rather than falling into a Marvel Comics style fugue about "am I a clone? I'll go sulk now."
I get what you're trying to say and do but it won't work, I'm a big sci-fi fan myself, but the technicality you think is there is not there. You can make a judgement on who is who because you've witnessed the creation of this copy of yourself. I can keep adding modifiers to my question but it won't change anything, I know you think you're being smart but trust me you're not.
If I magically made a image of you, who was exactly the same as you, you watched me make him through a window in a locked room with 24 video surveillance so we could be sure the two of you didn't get mixed up, not 10 seconds after I created him with him still being tied down to the table I created him on I killed him have I killed you, the person who just saw me kill your image or have I killed your image? Remember I'm not asking you who I killed from your point of view if you were there, but rather, who did I actually kill from a factual point of view, you or the copy.
Spoiler
If I were to appear before you in the flesh, I would be the image of the invisible Rosenritter. Yes, and I acknowledge that there is more than what you merely perceive. I would have blood and internal organs and all that beyond the image.[/QUOTE]
From what you said , You believe that Jesus being the "image of God" means that Jesus is the image of the spirit God in human form, correct me if I'm wrong. The only problem is that that's not what the verse says, the verse simply states Jesus is the "image of God". This was written after Jesus ascension after it states Jesus "became a spirit", nowhere else other than Hebrews 1:3 does it further define how Jesus is the image of God. According to Hebrews 1:3 it is not in regards to an attributional image as you seem to claim but to his exact being.
From what you said , You believe that Jesus being the "image of God" means that Jesus is the image of the spirit God in human form, correct me if I'm wrong. The only problem is that that's not what the verse says, the verse simply states Jesus is the "image of God". This was written after Jesus ascension after it states Jesus "became a spirit", nowhere else other than Hebrews 1:3 does it further define how Jesus is the image of God. According to Hebrews 1:3 it is not in regards to an attributional image as you seem to claim but to his exact being.
You know that the statement in Col 1:15 isn't about attempting to limit or differentiate Jesus from God, but rather the opposite.
No its not, but that's exactly what it does, it differentiates Jesus from God. Anything that is an image of something cannot be the that it images otherwise it wouldn't be an image. You can't run away from word definitions.