ECT WHAT JOHN 3:16 REALLY MEANS TO US TODAY !!

drbrumley

Well-known member
nah, straight up FACT. Jesus was not just sent to Israel and that is what that verse is about the birth of Jesus.

Real scholarly response ! I guess that is a good response when you have NOTHING !

More Baloney!

Your not interested in schoraly responses.....so why give one.
 

dodge

New member
More Baloney!

Your not interested in schoraly responses.....so why give one.

lol, you don't have one. No matter how hard you try you cannot make the birth of Jesus just apply to Israel. Well by destroying the context of all of scripture I suppose you can, and that is pretty much what MAD does.
 

drbrumley

Well-known member
lol, you don't have one. No matter how hard you try you cannot make the birth of Jesus just apply to Israel. Well by destroying the context of all of scripture I suppose you can, and that is pretty much what MAD does.

Talk about taking what MAD believes out of context....you take the cake bro.
 

dodge

New member
Talk about taking what MAD believes out of context....you take the cake bro.

MAD says repentance is for Israel;however, Paul says it is for the B.O.C. Yep MAD takes scripture out of context to stay in man made error.

Acts 20:21

21 Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.

Paul said repent MAD says repentance is for Israel I will stay with what Paul taught.
 

dodge

New member
drbrumley;5008322]Ok, if you didn't miss it, then you can quote what he says....
Matthew 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Which Jesus did and after Israel was set aside for a time the gospel was opened to everyone !


Glad we have your opinion.

Somehow in the deception of MAD "world" does not mean world (John 3:16), "repentance toward God" does not mean repentance (Acts20:21) ,and "whosoever " does not mean whosoever (John 3:16).

Your welcome.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
No.

As far as Galatians, the covenant was through the Son as Paul says it in Galatians. I realize MAD does not agree on that point but I think it inconsequential, for the most part, if one understands salvation by grace. If so, we can argue 'when' that grace first appeared until the cows come home, as far as I'm concerned. -Lon


Hi and what the terms of salvation under Covenant Theology ?

Mine are found in 1 Tim 1:16 , Acts 9:6 , 1 Cor 12:3 and 1 Cor 2:14 !!

What with verses are your TERMS of being saved ??

Opinions do not matter , just produce verses , PLEASE ??

dan p
 

DAN P

Well-known member
As far as exact words? Agree. I simply believe the Jews were blinded by their expectations. The Lord Jesus Christ clearly told the disciples He was going to die and would explain it to them after he rose again. John 11:10-19

Even if we never agree, are you sure such means that only Dispensationalists are heaven-bound? Did you know some MAD think even Dispensational isn't good enough? I'm not really caught up in what a person says about who is saved and who is not. I'm concerned at who the Lord Jesus Christ and His Apostles say are saved and who are not. On this, I more than disagree. God is able to save to the uttermost those who are perishing. -Lon


Hi and seem to agree with John 3:16 and did not see answer IF you also agreed with John 3:5 and just a couple of verse above , SO are they for today ?

dan p
 

Lon

Well-known member
Hi and seem to agree with John 3:16 and did not see answer IF you also agreed with John 3:5 and just a couple of verse above , SO are they for today ?

dan p
I 'think' most MAD believe "Kingdom of God" is a kingdom offer, meaning Jewish promise and their Covenant fulfillment. I'm okay with them not agreeing with you or me. It isn't too big of a deal and really deals with God's chosen people at that point. It may affect our gentile politics with them, but I don't see it affecting much else.

That said, I agree with you, we must have a new nature to follow Christ: 1 Corinthians 2:14 2 Corinthians 5:17. MAD and Dispensationalists agree on that point, they just don't think John 3 is addressed to them or you and I. We disagree. Big deal? No, not when they agree with 2 Corinthians 5:17 and Ephesians 2:10 (my opinion). In Him -Lon
 

DAN P

Well-known member
No.

As far as Galatians, the covenant was through the Son as Paul says it in Galatians. I realize MAD does not agree on that point but I think it inconsequential, for the most part, if one understands salvation by grace. If so, we can argue 'when' that grace first appeared until the cows come home, as far as I'm concerned. -Lon


Hi and when do you believe , GRACE first appeared OR who was the first one saved in the dispensation of the Grace of God OR who did PREACH or TESTIFY of the Gospel of the Grace of God , see Acts 20:24 !!

dan p
 

Lon

Well-known member
Hi and when do you believe , GRACE first appeared OR who was the first one saved in the dispensation of the Grace of God OR who did PREACH or TESTIFY of the Gospel of the Grace of God , see Acts 20:24 !!

dan p

As I said, we'd disagree on 'when.' The scripture uses the word 'dispensation' but just as 'covenant' is read differently, so too is 'dispensation' by us. For us, it means 'event.' We do see it as different, but not as different as dispensationalists see it.

I don't know who the first saved people were. In the Garden, there is a promise of crushing the serpents head. In life, we have adversity with snakes, but this was talking about Satan, and only the Lord Jesus Christ would crush his head. it was thus a promise of redemption. All who trusted God's promise would be saved. I believe all people who died, before Christ, went to a place that was divided between Hades and Paradise Luke 16:19-31 When the Lord Jesus Christ preached to spirits in prison, 1 Peter 3:19 it was Paradise Luke 23:43
Then Matthew 27:50-54 So, that would be the first day that men were saved, the first day of the Lord Jesus Christ's finished work, if that is your meaning by saved. You could of course insist the day they first believed was the day of their Salvation. I would not argue that.

I hope some of this helps and serves you. -Lon
 

DAN P

Well-known member
As I said, we'd disagree on 'when.' The scripture uses the word 'dispensation' but just as 'covenant' is read differently, so too is 'dispensation' by us. For us, it means 'event.' We do see it as different, but not as different as dispensationalists see it.

I don't know who the first saved people were. In the Garden, there is a promise of crushing the serpents head. In life, we have adversity with snakes, but this was talking about Satan, and only the Lord Jesus Christ would crush his head. it was thus a promise of redemption. All who trusted God's promise would be saved. I believe all people who died, before Christ, went to a place that was divided between Hades and Paradise Luke 16:19-31 When the Lord Jesus Christ preached to spirits in prison, 1 Peter 3:19 it was Paradise Luke 23:43
Then Matthew 27:50-54 So, that would be the first day that men were saved, the first day of the Lord Jesus Christ's finished work, if that is your meaning by saved. You could of course insist the day they first believed was the day of their Salvation. I would not argue that.

I hope some of this helps and serves you. -Lon


Hi and the Greek word OIKONOMIS is a compound word !!

OIKOS means HOUSE !!

NOMOS means LAW !!

So OIKONOMIA / DISPENSATION means HOUSE LAW , so what are these Law mean ??

It is obviously Paul as Gal 1:15 !!

You have not clearly said how a person in a COVENANT is saved !!

You said you are a COVENANT believer so how did God save you as you believe in COVENANTS , what is it ??

I know that we disagree , YET , I want to know how you are thinking about what salvation is to you !!

I have asked many on this forum am I have not YET even had a clear answer !!

Are you one of them too ?

If you want to stop me asking you about salvation , just say I can not answer and I will stop asking !!

dan p
 

Lon

Well-known member
Hi and the Greek word OIKONOMIS is a compound word !!

OIKOS means HOUSE !!

NOMOS means LAW !!

So OIKONOMIA / DISPENSATION means HOUSE LAW , so what are these Law mean ??

It is obviously Paul as Gal 1:15 !!
:confused: You'll have to explain what you are saying.

You have not clearly said how a person in a COVENANT is saved !!
1) If I am unclear it isn't for lack of trying. I am fallible, however. Communication takes two people.
2) Even if I haven't made it clear, I think Galatians 3 does, whether I am successful in my explanation of Paul to you or not.
You said you are a COVENANT believer so how did God save you as you believe in COVENANTS , what is it ??
Well, try and think of it changing the word: "How did a dispensation save you?" Answer: It didn't. The Lord Jesus Christ saves.
If that makes sense to you, this would be my short answer. A Covenant is simply the promise of Jesus Christ: Jesus Christ saves (same as with Dispensationalism).

I know that we disagree , YET , I want to know how you are thinking about what salvation is to you !!

I have asked many on this forum am I have not YET even had a clear answer !!

Are you one of them too ?

If you want to stop me asking you about salvation , just say I can not answer and I will stop asking !!

dan p

I'm not bothered at all Dan. I will keep trying. In a nutshell, we'd both say that neither Covenant nor Dispensational are 'what' saves us. It is rather what is accomplished during or by these terms, that we are saved in Christ and His work. Salvation is by Christ alone. Acts 4:12
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
lol, However "dodge" understands what "world" (John 3:16), "whosoever" ( John 3:16 ), and "repentance toward God "means (Acts 20:21), and I do not have to change the the context of the meaning of those words and cram them into what they do not mean to believe what I believe.

Spoken with righteous zeal, sound emotion, and good logic.

Dodge is just swell in my book! :up:
 

DAN P

Well-known member
:confused: You'll have to explain what you are saying.


1) If I am unclear it isn't for lack of trying. I am fallible, however. Communication takes two people.
2) Even if I haven't made it clear, I think Galatians 3 does, whether I am successful in my explanation of Paul to you or not.

Well, try and think of it changing the word: "How did a dispensation save you?" Answer: It didn't. The Lord Jesus Christ saves.
If that makes sense to you, this would be my short answer. A Covenant is simply the promise of Jesus Christ: Jesus Christ saves (same as with Dispensationalism).



I'm not bothered at all Dan. I will keep trying. In a nutshell, we'd both say that neither Covenant nor Dispensational are 'what' saves us. It is rather what is accomplished during or by these terms, that we are saved in Christ and His work. Salvation is by Christ alone. Acts 4:12


Hi and it is the message of the Revelation of the MYSTERY that saves , in Rom 16:25 and 26 !!

If you knew what the PATTERN of 1 Tim 1:16 is , you could explain it to me !!

#1 , Some say the John 3:5 saves , and is it the CONTEXT for today ??

#2 , And many say that Acts 2:38 is what saves !!

#3 Sopme believe BAPTISM saves !!

#4 And some like you say a COVENANT saves them , and give a long WINDED answer that is very FOGGY at best !!
#5 And then there is me and PAUL , and this is the PATTERN that you will never see !!

#6 First is how wemsee 1 Cor 2:14 ?

#7 Then there is how Paul was saved in Acts 9:6 and the KEY word is LORD , and its meaning ?

#8 The next important verse is 1 Cor 12:3 and its 4 verbs , where 3 are in the Greek PRESENT TENSE !!

#9 The last verb in 1 Cor 12:3 is the KEY verb SAY which is in the AORIST TENSE !

#10 The next , is Acts 16:14 !!

#13 The next is Rom 10:9 !!

That is my explanation of the Pattern used by the Holy Spirit !!

I have done these explanation , many times !!

Now explain how salvation comes about under a COVENANT and where are the verses that explain your position ??

dan p
 
Top