ECT What is better about D'ism?

Interplanner

Well-known member
As I said, some things are only about that generation . But the Gentiles get a better one considering the previous was non existent!
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
re the great misquote: a covenant for the people.

ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS ARE MISQUOTES!!! You foolish D'ists thinking it is solved by one English version or another. The solution is not in that. It is in the overall meaning. In this case it has to line up with the light for the Gentiles.

But regardless, it is still Christ who is the covenant. The covenant is not some set of other actions by God or the regenerated Israel. It's still about Christ, always was. It is available to all men who believe. So Paul says all through 2 Cor 3-5, the ministry of reconciliation to all mankind.

It doubles as being what Israel is supposed to do/be. Yes, the believers of Israel, because as soon as the unbelievers believe, this is their task too.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Yet he constantly criticizes it:(





grew up in it.

Now we have this issue: you keep talking about the restoration of Israel in Judea, yet now it is said that no D'ist believes in the restoration of Israel.

If they meant that it is that there will be many Jewish believers but not in Israel, OK; but then, what is the difference between that and what I think?

You cannot say that Jewish believers are a separate class or group because that is the opposite of Rom 9:24 which is supported by 4 OT passages including the 'not my people / now my people' that D'ists love to roll out as intra-Israel.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
God separated his people from the pagan Canaanites, yes. So what about now? What if a person did not want to be separate from the pagans?

So God has always sought faith and obedience. And that separates us today from unbelief and permissiveness. That's the real "Israel" of God.
 

Danoh

New member
grew up in it.

Now we have this issue: you keep talking about the restoration of Israel in Judea, yet now it is said that no D'ist believes in the restoration of Israel...

"...in it" perhaps.

"grew up..." highly doubtful.

No Dispy thinks there will be no restoration of Israel.

Which means you never understood Dispensationalism.

:doh: :chuckle:

Acts 17:11,12
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Since the gentiles NEVER had a priesthood, how can they have a "better" one?
Since the gentiles NEVER had a covenant, how can they have a "better" one?
Etc. etc. etc.


There is MORE than one TYPE of salvation in the Bible, "grammar scholar".

The salvation referred to in Hebrews 9:28 is a YET future salvation.

Paul tells us that we are SAVED now (Rom 5:11).

Another example of "saved" is in Luke 1:71ff


Hi and that is right on , as the verb SHALL HE APPEAR / OPTANOMAI is in the FUTURE TENSE and in the PASSIVE VOICE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD of a FACT !!

dan p
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Hi and that is right on , as the verb SHALL HE APPEAR / OPTANOMAI is in the FUTURE TENSE and in the PASSIVE VOICE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD of a FACT !!

dan p





But what did he mean in 9:26 about saved? It is something we are waiting for now. There won't be any more sacrifices for sins, so its not that. It's the kingdom and city that are above which we shall join.

In that generation, it meant the NHNE more meaningfully or necessarily than it does today because their land/country was about to burn.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Thanks for continuing to show your insanity.




But they/we were! We were without hope and cut off from the covenants of the promise, Eph 2:12. But now we are brought near through the blood of Christ (just remember, as Tam says, that the blood and body of Christ are 100,000 feet of electrically charged concrete apart from each other, to keep things clear).

It must therefore be that Gen 3, 12, 15 always was looking to include the nations in the Gospel, and that the land was only a temporary positioning of the people of Israel in preparation for that.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
I think that the thing hidden in God in Eph 3:9 and hidden in the prophetic writings but now made known (Rom 16:25) are the same thing: that the OT was about Christ and the Gospel all along, and those are allowed to define things in the new era of Christ.
 

Danoh

New member
I think that the thing hidden in God in Eph 3:9 and hidden in the prophetic writings but now made known (Rom 16:25) are the same thing: that the OT was about Christ and the Gospel all along, and those are allowed to define things in the new era of Christ.

One, that is Rom. 16:26, not Rom. 16:25, and two, the prophetic writings Paul is referring to are his own writings.

Romans 15:15 Nevertheless, brethren, I have written the more boldly unto you in some sort, as putting you in mind, because of the grace that is given to me of God, 15:16 That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.

1 Corinthians 14:37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.

2 Peter 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

Romans 16:24 The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen. 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, 16:26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith: 16:27 To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ for ever. Amen.

As you are well aware, I'm sure, in the original language, the phrase is "prophetic writings."

And in Scripture, a Prophet is one who God speaks through and or who He foretells a thing through.

2 Peter 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

1 Corinthians 14:37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.

What commandments of the Lord?

Acts 26:15 And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest. 26:16 But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee; 26:17 Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, 26:18 To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.

And so on...

Rom. 5:8

_______________

Note: as translated in 2 Peter 1: 20 there, the phrase "any private interpretation" is Early Modern English (1485 -1603) for "made up" or "of one's own origin."
 

JudgeRightly

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But they/we were! We were without hope and cut off from the covenants of the promise, Eph 2:12. But now we are brought near through the blood of Christ (just remember, as Tam says, that the blood and body of Christ are 100,000 feet of electrically charged concrete apart from each other, to keep things clear).

It must therefore be that Gen 3, 12, 15 always was looking to include the nations in the Gospel, and that the land was only a temporary positioning of the people of Israel in preparation for that.
IP, question for you, bit of a change in direction:

How many gospels are there in the Bible?
 

JudgeRightly

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As a type of writing, there are 4.

As a doctrine, in which the event of Christ's death and resurrection is a great announcement, there is just one.
Galatians 2:7-9 says there are two:

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter(for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles),and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7-9&version=NKJV
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
I think that the thing hidden in God in Eph 3:9 and hidden in the prophetic writings but now made known (Rom 16:25) are the same thing: that the OT was about Christ and the Gospel all along, and those are allowed to define things in the new era of Christ.

:chuckle:
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Galatians 2:7-9 says there are two:

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter(for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles),and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7-9&version=NKJV





No that is a misunderstanding of the grammar. This has been debunked over the past 2 years here, just go find one of the many discussions. "of the circ" and "of the uncirc" are not direct objects in the sentences; they are indirect. In fact, the singular Gospel is single because of how the verb is constructed. If the two Gospel people were right, it would be translated: 'the tasks of preaching the Gospels...'

This kind of grammar mistake is typical of the amateur and ignorant basis put together by D'ism to try to preserve 'two peoples, two programs.'

The next line is the best clue: there are not two Gods at work in the two groups.
 

JudgeRightly

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No that is a misunderstanding of the grammar. This has been debunked over the past 2 years here, just go find one of the many discussions. "of the circ" and "of the uncirc" are not direct objects in the sentences; they are indirect. In fact, the singular Gospel is single because of how the verb is constructed. If the two Gospel people were right, it would be translated: 'the tasks of preaching the Gospels...'

You're missing the big picture. Ok, so maybe my understanding of the grammar, and therefore my point was bad, but your position does not fit with the overall message of the Bible, with Jeremiah 18, where Israel is warned that their disobedience will bring wrath upon them, Matthew 15, where Jesus makes it clear that he was sent only to the Jews, Luke 13, which explains that Jesus came to the Jews for three years, and wanted to cut them off, but the Holy Spirit said to wait one more year, and if Israel repented and turned to God, then He could continue with his plan, but if not, He could cut them off, Romans 11, which explains that Israel was cut off, and the Body of Christ was grafted in, and Galatians 2, that Peter and the other Apostles would go only to the Jews, and Paul to the world.

God's plan was to either A) reach the world through Israel, or B) reach the world in spite of Israel. Unfortunately, it turned out to be the latter, which resulted in God cutting off Israel.

This kind of grammar mistake is typical of the amateur and ignorant basis put together by D'ism to try to preserve 'two peoples, two programs.'

The next line is the best clue: there are not two Gods at work in the two groups.

What next line? Who is saying there are two Gods at work? There is only one God, the God of the Jews, and of the Gentiles also.
 
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