Why do you insist on ignoring point I've already refuted and shown to be false!?
I just showed you how the people in the NT state that God spoke to Moses by and angel even though it mentions repeatably in the OT God spoke to Moses directly! Acts 7:37,38, Acts 7:53
God himself is sometimes called an angel, because angel can also be applied to a being of spirit regardless of person.
I just showed you how the nation of Israel saw God face-to-face even though they didn't see God literally. Compare Exo 19:9, Deuteronomy 5:4, 5.
Interesting as an example, but irrelevant overall.
I just showed you that when it states Moses saw God face-to-face that not ten verses later Moses asks to see God and God states that he will NOT allow Moses to see his face as no man can see hos face and live! Why do you ignore this!? See the below verse.
Not ignored. Rather, you ignored the answer and context. Moses say a physical form of God, who spoke with him face to face. Moses then asks to see God's face in a different sense, and although this is denied, God does allow him to see him his spiritual form of power in a subdued sense.
Even by that measure, that contradicts your "Man cannot see God and live" contention.
Again, it is your assumption that the redeemer in v25 is the God in v26, demonstrate where in the text its state the redeemer is God. Your believe structure is riddled in assumptions. Again my understanding is that the redeemer is NOT the God in v26 since the passage makes no mention of him being God in the context, you've merely assumed it has.
Your forced interpretation of dis-joining a passage from itself into a broken unrelated mess is counter to the obvious intent of the speaker. Why would Job start to speak about his Redeemer, and then suddenly switch to a different person that he is going to see?
Rosenritter, according to 1 Timothy 6:16 has man seen God?
More divorcing the text from its context? Are you sure you want that scripture shown?
1 Timothy 6:13-16 KJV
(13) I give thee charge
in the sight of God, who quickeneth all things,
and before Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate witnessed a good confession;
(14) That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable,
until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
(15) Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate,
the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
(16)
Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto;
whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
I acknowledge that the passage is about God, but the text explicitly states that this is referring to
our Lord Jesus Christ. The King of kings, and Lord of lords. Are you confused about who this is?
Revelation 17:14 KJV
(14) These shall make war with
the Lamb, and
the Lamb shall overcome them:
for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings: and they that are with him are called, and chosen, and faithful.
Revelation 19:13-16 KJV
(13) And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood
: and his name is called The Word of God.
(14) And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean.
(15) And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.
(16)
And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.
God = Lord Jesus Christ = King of kings, and Lord of lords = the Lamb = The Word of God
Isn't it amazing how all these different places of the bible keep converging back on that one bit? Back in agreement with the first chapter of the gospel of John. It's almost like the whole collection of holy books has an agenda!
Ah, to answer your question, IF (and only if) we assume that the Lord Jesus Christ is God, then it says that no man has ever seen nor can see God. If you keep insisting that these are not one and the same, then no, it does not say that no man has ever seen God, and it only says that no man has ever seen the Lord Jesus Christ.
The former choice of acknowledging the clear message of this passage (and dozens of others) of recognizing our Lord as God and Savior does allow for God to be both seen (in visible form) and unable to be seen (in full and true spiritual form and power) by those who are as of yet corruptible and not yet been changed.
May I make a whimsical prediction? As a JW, you will not ever give up that "Jesus is not God" no matter what it says. So 1 Timothy will become a statement that no man has ever seen or ever will see the true form of Jesus Christ. After all, you may acknowledge that he came as a man, but you allow for him to have a spiritual form which predated the incarnation.