Robert's Gospel According to the Apostle Paul

beloved57

Well-known member
pate

All that Jesus is and all that Jesus did is for our salvation and justification.

In Jesus Christ we have been justified, sanctified and redeemed, 1 Corinthians 1:30. We have been made complete in him, Colossians 2:10. There is nothing that anyone can do to make themselves more holy than what God has made them in Jesus Christ.

Yet you teach that sinners Christ lived and died for wind up condemned into Hell !
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
I am going to answer this religious reprobates post for the sake of others. He is beyond hope. Reprobates cannot hear or understand the Gospel. They have been cut off. the Holy Spirit has given up on them. They hear but they cannot understand. Only those that are indwelt with the Holy Spirit can hear, believe and understand the Gospel.

All that Jesus is and all that Jesus did is for our salvation and justification.

In Jesus Christ we have been justified, sanctified and redeemed, 1 Corinthians 1:30. We have been made complete in him, Colossians 2:10. There is nothing that anyone can do to make themselves more holy than what God has made them in Jesus Christ.

Listen to what Paul says and not the reprobates.

"For you are dead and your life is hid with Christ in God" Colossians 3:3.

God sees the Christian as perfect and complete in his Son Jesus Christ. If this is true, which it is, then who needs the law? If God sees us as perfect and complete "In Christ", then why do we need to be concerned about sin?

Those that believe the Gospel have entered into his rest, Hebrews 4:10. This is proof that they are Christians. They are no longer trying to be good enough, they believe that they are already perfect and complete "In Christ". Few there be that believe that, because like Jesus said, "Few there be that Find it" Matthew 7:14

Spam, misdirection.

If Jesus had not fulfilled the law and abolished it no one could be saved. Where there is law there is judgment and condemnation.

=abolishing the the law saves, not Christ dying for our sins.


He admits it again.

Why did Christ die for our sins, Pate?

Pate: If there is no law, there is no judgment and condemnation; thus the cross was unnecessary.

"Pate-ianity:" Destroy the law, make it void, so that we cannot be condemned, judged, for breaking a law, committing a transgression, sin, resulting in a sin debt=not that Christ died for our sins/sin debt, He taking the judgment/ condemnation, in our place, for transgressing His own good, holy, spiritual law.

This is "Pate-ianity"'s satanic argument, solution, to the sin/sins problem-not that Christ died for our sin debt, in our place, taking the penalty in our stead, being condemned, judged, in our place, but eliminating the law, so that there is no judgment/condemnation possible, as their is no sin debt to be paid for,no judgment/condemnation..

How can Christ die for your/our sins, our sin debt, if the law was deleted, eliminated,destroyed, made void, 2000+ years ago, and thus there is no transgression, sin debt, since there is no law. Go ahead, spammer, Tell, all of TOL. And tell all of TOL, why Christ died for our sin debt,and, again, how is that possible, since there is no law, according to your magic wand sorcery, deleting it, which spells out, defines, sin. Tell us how you commit sins/transgressions, which you admit that you do, if, as you say, there is no more holy, good, spiritual law of God, that defines, marks them, as such.


ANSWER, Pate-NOW.

"There is therefore no condemnation to them to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit" Romans 8:1.

Pate: We are in Christ Jesus, because his walk in the law is credited to us, as we are imputed the righteousness of the law, just as "Jesus" obtained His righteousness, and because there is no law any more, as God destroyed it, made it void, and we cannot be judged/condemned, by a non existing law, and thus no sin debt can be incurred, and we are not saved because Christ died for our sin debt-there is none.

Why did Christ suffer, die, Pate?
There is no condemnation because there is no law, it has been abolished, Ephesians 2:15 also Colossians 2:14.


ON RECORD-AGAIN-Pate: We are not condemned, because there is no law any more, as God destroyed it, made it void, and we cannot be judged/condemned, by a non existing law, and thus no sin debt can be incurred, and we are not saved because Christ died for our sin debt-there is none.
One of the reasons that Jesus abolished the law is because the law promotes sin, Romans 7:7-11.

No, the Lord Jesus Christ did not abolish the law, make it void, as you also said Paul says, and is going to send you to hell, for satanically stating, misinterpreting the verse, that the law makes you sin, and you saying that it is not good, not spiritual, not holy.

Where there is no law there is no sin. 14:6.
No sin, liar? Then how can Christ die for your sins, in the future that you commit, if the law defining said sins/sin debt, was destroyed 2000+ years ago, Pate? You say you are a sinner, Pate? You commit sins, do you, Pate? How is that- "Where there is no law there is no sin
.?


Witness, again, the continued evasion, side stepping, as Pate refuse to address my/others' challenges, to his argument, as he will not answer:

How can Christ die for your/our sins, our sin debt, if the law was deleted, eliminated,destroyed, made void, 2000+ years ago, and thus there is no transgression, sin debt, since there is no law. Go ahead, spammer, Tell, all of TOL. And tell all of TOL, why Christ died for our sin debt,and, again, how is that possible, since there is no law, according to your magic wand sorcery, deleting it, which spells out, defines, sin. Tell us how you commit sins/transgressions, which you admit that you do, if, as you say, there is no more holy, good, spiritual law of God, that defines, marks them, as such.


ANSWER, Pate-NOW.





2 Corinthians 5:19 KJV

to wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

Go ahead, Pate-tell us how we/you have trespasses, "their trespasses," "post cross," if there can be no trespasses, since their is no law, as it was destroyed, according to you, 2000+ years ago, at the cross, defining trespasses/sins/sin debt.


Colossians 2:13 KJV

And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;


Go ahead, Pate-tell us how we/you have trespasses, "their trespasses," "post cross," if there can be no trespasses, since their is no law, as it was destroyed, according to you, 2000+ years ago, at the cross, defining trespasses/sins/sin debt.



You won't, after years of being asked this, by myself, numerous members of the boc-just more copy'npaste, word-for-word spam, posting verses in isolation, deleting hundreds of verses, with no explanation, and marking everyone on TOL, as not having the Holy Spirit, since they disagree, and despise, your satanic assertion, and blustering that you are the only one that preaches "the Gospel," and believes the bible, on this site.



Deceiver, rejecting that Christ died for our sins.

Tell us Pate-HOW CAN CHRIST DIE FOR OUR/YOUR SINS/SIN DEBT, if there is no holy law of God defining sin, and thus there can be no sin debt?


As I have stated, over, and over, again-Silencio, as the devil has a gag order on him.As I/musty/others, have pointed out, continually, he just ignores challenges to his argument, and instead, "human reasoning"s our rebuttal, with "Well, If Jesus did not .......Who did he do it for?," posts verse in isolation, never "connecting the dots,"redefines biblical words, spams false , insane false dichotomies, such as, "Well, if the law exists, then everyone is under it, subject to it, and we cannot keep it, so it must destroyed...," and "closes" his spam, by asserting that anyone that disagrees with him, does not have the Holy Spirit, and that no one on TOL, except himself, preaches justification by faith alone(despite him preaching "vicarious law keeping"), and not many on TOL believe the bible, "obviously," as he does, despite him believing "The Reader's Digest Condensed Bible," as he attempt, on record, to delete 3/4 of it.
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
Copy'npaste spam.

Answer-Why did Christ die for our sins, Pate, as I/others, have asked you, for years, and when was it accomplished, as musty has asked you, over, and over?

The question is elementary for a Christian.

When Jesus died on the cross for the sins of the whole world then sin was abolished. As far as God is concerned sin, death, and the devil have been defeated and abolished. You and Musty don't believe this because you are without the Holy Spirit, who is the teacher of truth, John 16:13.

God now sees ALL THINGS in his Son Jesus Christ, Colossians 1:20.
 

Right Divider

Body part
The question is elementary for a Christian.

When Jesus died on the cross for the sins of the whole world then sin was abolished. As far as God is concerned sin, death, and the devil have been defeated and abolished. You and Musty don't believe this because you are without the Holy Spirit, who is the teacher of truth, John 16:13.

God now sees ALL THINGS in his Son Jesus Christ, Colossians 1:20.
Your story is changing.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
The question is elementary for a Christian.

When Jesus died on the cross for the sins of the whole world then sin was abolished. .
Caught, in deceit, and admitting, again, that Christ did not die for his/other, by definition, future sins/sin debt, as He again says sin was abolished 2000+ years ago, and thus there is no sin debt, for which the Saviour must die, since the law, that defines sin, and the corresponding din debt incurred, no longer exists.

ANSWER, Pate:

How can Christ die for your/our sins, our sin debt, if the law was deleted, eliminated,destroyed, made void, 2000+ years ago, and thus there is no transgression, sin debt, since there is no law. Go ahead, spammer, Tell, all of TOL. And tell all of TOL, why Christ died for our sin debt,and, again, how is that possible, since there is no law, according to your magic wand sorcery, deleting it, which spells out, defines, sin. Tell us how you commit sins/transgressions, which you admit that you do, if, as you say, there is no more holy, good, spiritual law of God, that defines, marks them, as such.


ANSWER, Pate-NOW.

"There is therefore no condemnation to them to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit" Romans 8:1.

Pate: We are in Christ Jesus, because his walk in the law is credited to us, as we are imputed the righteousness of the law, just as "Jesus" obtained His righteousness, and because there is no law any more, as God destroyed it, made it void, and we cannot be judged/condemned, by a non existing law, and thus no sin debt can be incurred, and we are not saved because Christ died for our sin debt-there is none.

Why did Christ suffer, die, Pate?

There is no condemnation because there is no law, it has been abolished, Ephesians 2:15 also Colossians 2:14.


ON RECORD-AGAIN-Pate: We are not condemned, because there is no law any more, as God destroyed it, made it void, and we cannot be judged/condemned, by a non existing law, and thus no sin debt can be incurred, and we are not saved because Christ died for our sin debt-there is none.
One of the reasons that Jesus abolished the law is because the law promotes sin, Romans 7:7-11.

No, the Lord Jesus Christ did not abolish the law, make it void, as you also said Paul says, and is going to send you to hell, for satanically stating, misinterpreting the verse, that the law makes you sin, and you saying that it is not good, not spiritual, not holy.

Where there is no law there is no sin. 14:6.
No sin, liar? Then how can Christ die for your sins, in the future that you commit, if the law defining said sins/sin debt, was destroyed 2000+ years ago, Pate? You say you are a sinner, Pate? You commit sins, do you, Pate? How is that- "Where there is no law there is no sin
.?



Witness, again, the continued evasion, side stepping, as Pate refuse to address my/others' challenges, to his argument, as he will not answer:

How can Christ die for your/our sins, our sin debt, if the law was deleted, eliminated,destroyed, made void, 2000+ years ago, and thus there is no transgression, sin debt, since there is no law. Go ahead, spammer, Tell, all of TOL. And tell all of TOL, why Christ died for our sin debt,and, again, how is that possible, since there is no law, according to your magic wand sorcery, deleting it, which spells out, defines, sin. Tell us how you commit sins/transgressions, which you admit that you do, if, as you say, there is no more holy, good, spiritual law of God, that defines, marks them, as such.


ANSWER, Pate-NOW.





2 Corinthians 5:19 KJV

to wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

Go ahead, Pate-tell us how we/you have trespasses, "their trespasses," "post cross," if there can be no trespasses, since their is no law, as it was destroyed, according to you, 2000+ years ago, at the cross, defining trespasses/sins/sin debt.


Colossians 2:13 KJV

And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;


Go ahead, Pate-tell us how we/you have trespasses, "their trespasses," "post cross," if there can be no trespasses, since their is no law, as it was destroyed, according to you, 2000+ years ago, at the cross, defining trespasses/sins/sin debt.



You won't, after years of being asked this, by myself, numerous members of the boc-just more copy'npaste, word-for-word spam, posting verses in isolation, deleting hundreds of verses, with no explanation, and marking everyone on TOL, as not having the Holy Spirit, since they disagree, and despise, your satanic assertion, and blustering that you are the only one that preaches "the Gospel," and believes the bible, on this site.



Deceiver, rejecting that Christ died for our sins.

Tell us Pate-HOW CAN CHRIST DIE FOR OUR/YOUR SINS/SIN DEBT, if there is no holy law of God defining sin, and thus there can be no sin debt?


As I have stated, over, and over, again-Silencio, as the devil has a gag order on him.As I/musty/others, have pointed out, continually, he just ignores challenges to his argument, and instead, "human reasoning"s our rebuttal, with "Well, If Jesus did not .......Who did he do it for?," posts verse in isolation, never "connecting the dots,"redefines biblical words, spams false , insane false dichotomies, such as, "Well, if the law exists, then everyone is under it, subject to it, and we cannot keep it, so it must destroyed...," and "closes" his spam, by asserting that anyone that disagrees with him, does not have the Holy Spirit, and that no one on TOL, except himself, preaches justification by faith alone(despite him preaching "vicarious law keeping"), and not many on TOL believe the bible, "obviously," as he does, despite him believing "The Reader's Digest Condensed Bible," as he attempt, on record, to delete 3/4 of it.
 
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john w

New member
Hall of Fame
The question is elementary for a Christian.

When Jesus died on the cross for the sins of the whole world then sin was abolished.

Again-how can Christ die for your future sins,if, you say, the law, which defines sins/sin debt, was abolished at the cross? He cannot die for sins,since the law, which defines sins/sin debt, was abolished at the cross.

And how can you commit sins, which you on record admit that you do,if the law, defining sins, and the resulting sin debt incurred, when the law was abolished, according to you, and thus no future sins exist, even though you say you do commit sins?
 

Rosenritter

New member
The question is elementary for a Christian.

When Jesus died on the cross for the sins of the whole world then sin was abolished. As far as God is concerned sin, death, and the devil have been defeated and abolished. You and Musty don't believe this because you are without the Holy Spirit, who is the teacher of truth, John 16:13.

God now sees ALL THINGS in his Son Jesus Christ, Colossians 1:20.

Hebrews 10:26-27 KJV
(26) For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
(27) But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries.

1 John 1:8-10 KJV
(8) If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
(9) If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
(10) If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

Why does it speak of sin in this way (above) if sin is currently abolished?
 

Right Divider

Body part
Hebrews 10:26-27 KJV
(26) For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
(27) But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries.

1 John 1:8-10 KJV
(8) If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
(9) If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
(10) If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

Why does it speak of sin in this way (above) if sin is currently abolished?
Because you wrongly read books from another dispensation into the current one.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Because you wrongly read books from another dispensation into the current one.

I wasn't asking a hyper-dispensationalist. If I was asking the same question of you I'd prepare from the special menu.

Romans 3:23 KJV
(23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Romans 6:12 KJV
(12) Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof.

Romans 6:15 KJV
(15) What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

Romans 7:17 KJV
(17) Now then it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.

Romans 14:23 KJV
(23) And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.

So for you, I'd say "why does Paul speak of sin as if it currently exists if sin is abolished?" But I didn't see you saying sin was abolished so I didn't ask you, so don't worry about it.
 

clefty

New member
I wasn't asking a hyper-dispensationalist. If I was asking the same question of you I'd prepare from the special menu.

Romans 3:23 KJV
(23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Romans 6:12 KJV
(12) Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof.

Romans 6:15 KJV
(15) What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

Romans 7:17 KJV
(17) Now then it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.

Romans 14:23 KJV
(23) And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.

So for you, I'd say "why does Paul speak of sin as if it currently exists if sin is abolished?" But I didn't see you saying sin was abolished so I didn't ask you, so don't worry about it.

All this is quite simply to reject Sabbath

you, like they, reject that the Sabbath was made for man...arguing rather it was made just for jews...

And yet Sabbath was sealed into the new covenant since He signed and sealed it BEFORE He was killed...SO therefore NO changes or editions or revisions or subtractions are allowed...

As if there were more than just One Way into the kingdom...but through Him HIS WAY
 

Rosenritter

New member
All this is quite simply to reject Sabbath

you, like they, reject that the Sabbath was made for man...arguing rather it was made just for jews...

And yet Sabbath was sealed into the new covenant since He signed and sealed it BEFORE He was killed...SO therefore NO changes or editions or revisions or subtractions are allowed...

As if there were more than just One Way into the kingdom...but through Him HIS WAY

The same way the circumcision and the holy days and clean and unclean meats and new moons and the rules about the blue fringes on the garment were signed and sealed before he was killed?
 

Rosenritter

New member

He'd nail that Old Covenant to the cross with its circumcisions, its sacrifices, its temple veil, its Levitical priesthood, its separation between Jew and Gentile, its unclean meats, sabbaths, commandments, laws, and ordinances.

And he'd give us a new commandment in its place, rise from the dead, confirm his status as the LORD of Hosts through his ascension, and then speak to the twelve and Paul to make sure they understood.
 

Right Divider

Body part
I wasn't asking a hyper-dispensationalist. If I was asking the same question of you I'd prepare from the special menu.
You should be arrested for attempted humor.

Romans 3:23 KJV
(23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Romans 6:12 KJV
(12) Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof.

Romans 6:15 KJV
(15) What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

Romans 7:17 KJV
(17) Now then it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.

Romans 14:23 KJV
(23) And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.

So for you, I'd say "why does Paul speak of sin as if it currently exists if sin is abolished?" But I didn't see you saying sin was abolished so I didn't ask you, so don't worry about it.
:DK:
 

Right Divider

Body part
He'd nail that Old Covenant to the cross with its circumcisions, its sacrifices, its temple veil, its Levitical priesthood, its separation between Jew and Gentile, its unclean meats, sabbaths, commandments, laws, and ordinances.
Why did God go through all the trouble to separate Israel from the gentiles and give them all of these things if he was just going to remove them later?

And he'd give us a new commandment in its place, rise from the dead, confirm his status as the LORD of Hosts through his ascension, and then speak to the twelve and Paul to make sure they understood.
Why did God call Paul when He had already called TWELVE apostles and sent them to all nations?
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
He'd nail that Old Covenant to the cross with its circumcisions, its sacrifices, its temple veil, its Levitical priesthood, its separation between Jew and Gentile, its unclean meats, sabbaths, commandments, laws, and ordinances.

And he'd give us a new commandment in its place, rise from the dead, confirm his status as the LORD of Hosts through his ascension, and then speak to the twelve and Paul to make sure they understood.

And what was that new commandment?

And why did the Lord give Paul revelations He had not given to the twelve?


I'm not expecting an answer, but merely pointing out that Rosenritter speaks without understanding.
 
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