Is the doctrine of Eternal Conscious Torment biblical or not?

Rosenritter

New member
KingdomRose, are you sure that is a non-biblical teaching? Because I was quoting James.

James 2:26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.

Compare this with my paraphrase:

Hopefully we can agree that death includes the separation of body and spirit (or soul and spirit).

By the way, where did I say that the body without the spirit is alive, or that the spirit without the body is alive? Can't recall ever saying that...

NO. That is totally a non-biblical teaching. You get that separation of body and spirit (meaning a conscious part of you that lives on) business from pagan philosophy, straight from Plato.

God told Adam he would DIE. Satan said, "You will NOT die." (Gen.3:4) So why do we think that what Satan said is true? We obviously do die, and if we DIE, we are not alive. Duh?

"The dead are conscious of nothing at all." (Ecclesiastes 9:5)
 
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Rosenritter

New member
Ecclesiastes is part of the preserved scripture, which Peter says was written by the Holy Ghost (1 Peter 1;21) and Paul says is given by inspiration of God, and profitable for doctrine (2 Timothy 3:16). In addition to this, Solomon was specifically given wisdom above other men (2 Chronicles 1:12). In addition, what it says is in agreement with the rest of the holy scripture. The book is part of God's word, and not presented as arguments presented by uninspired men such as the adversaries of Job.

Ecclesiastes is God's argument. The footnotes in the Geneva bible is man's argument. Calvin's Institutes is man's argument. The Matthew Henry commentary is man's argument. Theology Online is full of man's arguments. But Ecclesiastes, and all the scripture, is God's argument.

Ecclesiastes is God's record of man's argument. Not God's argument.

I'm not surprised you think the same, for you are of the flesh.

P.s. Yes, I know that the argument of the serpent is not God's argument, and I know that the nay-saying of Job's friends are not God's argument. The serpent and Job's friends were rebuked. Ecclesiastes was not rebuked.
 

Zeke

Well-known member
Paul didn't mean that Jesus is literally in a person. That's ridiculous. It's like Jesus said in John chapter 17, verses 20-23. For someone to be "in" someone else, it's the same as saying they are unified. Jesus is actually where the scriptures say he is---in heaven at the right hand of the Father.

Jesus a pattern Metaphoric/symbolic Galatians 4:24 portrayed through out scriptures revealing the divine spark in man Luke 17:20-21, Jesus being a prototype of divine nature/seed not a historical man that falls to earth body/flesh/field/tomb/etc... Heaven and Hell coexist in the conscience not some heavenly realm up yonder.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Glorydaz, you do realize that none of those passages you just quoted implies a never ending torment, don't you? You do know what happens when you throw anything that burns into an unquenchable fire, don't you? It burns up. It's guaranteed because the fire won't be quenched. That's a basic dictionary definition which is also reinforced by other (non hell) references in scripture.

(Isa 34:10) It shall not be quenched night nor day; the smoke thereof shall go up for ever: from generation to generation it shall lie waste; none shall pass through it for ever and ever.
(Isa 34:11) But the cormorant and the bittern shall possess it; the owl also and the raven shall dwell in it: and he shall stretch out upon it the line of confusion, and the stones of emptiness.


Cormorants, bitterns, owls, and ravens are not well known for their ability to forever live within smoke and fire.

Yes, Jesus is Christ and Lord and God, but if you really want to be persuasive about this, you aren't going to ever gain her confidence if you ignore other scripture and misquote and/or misapply what is easy to plainly read. Prove that you will address scripture fairly and you might gain some trust when it matters.

For example, if you want to say that people are tortured without end, know that punishment by unquenchable fire doesn't support it. Try to find a scripture that does that doesn't first require you to assume the very thing you're attempting to prove.

You only say this because you don't know the Lord Jesus Christ. He was, in fact, warning you of what you would be facing if your didn't change you hard heart and turn to Him for His mercy and grace. He is the Lord your God, and you flat deny that. To make matters worse, you accuse the Lord of teaching an untruth. There was no "metaphor" there. Had there been, Jesus would have explained the meaning to the disciples. Every single one of Jesus' parables were true pictures...none went against real life events, and as in this text, a description of what we see in many other verses in scripture. You have a lot of ignoring to do to claim it was only a metaphor.
Psalm 55:15 Let death seize upon them, and let them go down quick into hell: for wickedness is in their dwellings, and among them.

Isaiah 5:14-15 Therefore hell hath enlarged herself, and opened her mouth without measure: and their glory, and their multitude, and their pomp, and he that rejoiceth, shall descend into it.
And the mean man shall be brought down, and the mighty man shall be humbled, and the eyes of the lofty shall be humbled:

Mark 9:43 And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched:

Mark 9:45 And if thy foot offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter halt into life, than having two feet to be cast into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched:

I can tell by reading your post that you are fighting hard against the truth of the Scriptures. You do that in order to twist and pervert them...just as every single cult out there does.
 
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Zeke

Well-known member
Romans 7:23-24, Galatians 5:17, there's your hell for the first Adam going through transition into the last Adam 1Cor 15:44-45. The flesh dies along with old nature that is corruptible not a group of people you religious zealots wish to see in pain forever Luke 9:55, every divine seed makes it because that's the will of Divine Law and Grace, and that overrides letters on a book along with your one dimensional thinking Romans 11:32-35.
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
Yes that is true. Could you tell us a little bit about Steve Gregg's book? Surely people who have looked deeply into the subject have found out that hell has been translated from three Greek words and they all mean something different, thus confusing billions of people over the centuries.

Three words all translated as "hell":

HADES (Matthew 11:23, 16:18; Acts 2:27,31; Revelation 1:18, 6:8, 20:13,14)....meaning mankind's grave

GEHENNA (Matthew 5:22,29,30,
10:28, 18:9, 23:15,33; Luke 12:5;
James 3:6)....meaning what results from something burning up (totally gone!)

TARTARUS....(2 Peter 2:4) meaning a state of spiritual darkness


None of the Greek terms mean a literal roasting of a human being.
Shalom.

I can tell you that there are a lot of scripture references in the book, and that I had difficulty with some of it. The first view presented is the Traditional view, and he cross examines each view.

Shalom.

Jacob
 

Lon

Well-known member
It looks like you are condensing this a bit. That's fine, I'll move in that direction too:
Some of it necessary, I'll discuss it as we go and address it a bit more in depth at the end as well.*

1. The "rule of proper names" isn't scriptural, but it is stated in a footnote in the Scofield reference bible. Footnotes are not gospel.
3 & 11. Israel was well known for adopting pagan customs and ideas fast. Golden calves. Groves. Priests of Baal. Necromancers with familiar spirits. Abraham's Bosom has pagan roots. You won't find it from scripture. Seems the Jews weren't totally immune.
Some of it, however, from their own warping of their own theology. Even Baal, though I can give you any of these as outside of God and His directions to them for worship.

7. You weren't able to find any other bible passage that uses the Greek "hades" in relation to fire, were you? If death and hell were fire already, they wouldn't have to be thrown there in Revelation 20:14. Every other instance of hades and sheol (hell) is death, corruption, the worm, decay, the grave, the tomb. Far from proving a connection, you are.
And? I gave you the list. There WERE more in Revelation I didn't post. Regardless of what you say, Hades IS thrown into the Lake of Fire. You can question God on this, it has naught to do with me. I gave you the information, you are responsible for it, AND believing what God alone tells you to believe. I am not the mediator nor dictator of your faith. God is.

8. Your question is both irrelevant and confused. Lazarus and the rich man doesn't name Moses as a person, it is one of the ways the Jews referenced scripture. Not that it matters anyway, it wouldn't matter if Moses was personified in this parable as well.
:nono: You have a LOT of inane assertion to your rebuttals. You may not mean to be condescending but ALWAYS overstepping your actual prowess and ability. Remember, Other than JW's, 7th Day A, and apparently John Stott and other Liberal churches by individuals, rather than denomination, it is all the rest of us. "Irrelevant" and "Confused" is at the door of the church militant and you are hardly Martin Luther. "Rosenritter who? :rotfl: " I'm not being mean, I'm trying to show you that you have a LOT of vibrato and your position is the cult and extreme minority. Honestly, nobody is listening nor will they let you play with the big-boys. Not even semi-pro.

(Why don't you just switch to the name "Abraham" who is personified instead of trying to argue Moses, who was not?) It would be meaningless anyway, because any amount of actors are allowed in a parable. Arguing that it can't be a parable because if has symbolic actors is an exercise in circular logic.
Your comprehension problem not mine. Who 'wrote' Moses and the prophets? :think: You are straining a gnat. You don't like this one? Obvious. It doesn't topple simply because "Rosenritter who?!?" attempts to push a tractor trailer all by himself.
Go ahead and debate, but I recommend trying to stop one-upping or asserting. Example: I am very different in my interpretation of Hebrews, especially Hebrews 6:4. Low and behold, I found MAD agrees with me BUT, I am very timid and careful with my opposing view even though I'm fairly certain about it. I rather tell people, in thread: "Look, my view is assailable simply because I'm in the minority, but I'm just throwing this out there." Contrast that with your stance. You are entirely too arrogant and cocky against the whole church ESPECIALLY where only cultists and a few liberal denominations that pervert God's word are concerned. That said, Don't over react, I've said I think Annihilation a heterodox view, not a damnable heresy. I just personally believe it 1) Overtly concerned with people who are going to hell, regardless, and 2) a potentially damaging lie that actually would comfort an unbeliever and keep them from coming to God as well. IOW, I see no advantage in your view.

10. Do you disagree that the people of Christ's day would have heard of stories where people went to hell and back? Or do you disagree that the Jewish prophets of scripture spoke of death and hell as nothingness? Or do you disagree that they were inspired? You said you disagree. With which part?
Samuel came back to Saul, by example. "Where" he came from is 'what' you and I are debating. Did you think your interpretation was the only one on the table? That you are a supreme thinker and no contest? Again Rosenritter-Who? is going to topple 600 million? Rosenritter-Who? is going to try and challenge 600 to a cage match? Were you valedictorian of your class? Top 10% on the honor roll?

13. When Jesus addressed the Pharisees and the Sadducees over poor understanding, it was never because they took their understanding from scripture, but because of what they said and did and believed that went against scripture. Not once did he chide them for believing scripture as it was written.
Incorrect. In fact, the Lord Jesus Christ said to do as they said, not as they did. He told the Samaritan woman that 'we Jews' know what we are talking about.

2. Parable of the Prodigal Son (Luke 15:11-32) has no introduction of "He spoke this parable unto them"
4. Parable of the Prodigal Son (Luke 15:11-32) has no specifically stated application.
5. Parable of the Prodigal Son (Luke 15:11-32) has no specifically given explanation.
6. There isn't an honest Bible that calls the Parable of the Prodigal Son (Luke 15:11-32) a parable. Why? It's not in the Greek Text.
14. In spite of all this the Parable of the Prodigal Son is well known as a parable. Many well known parables lack all your identifying characteristics. Yet only because the future of ECT depends on it, this one is denied as a parable,
So all of your bible's list it as a parable, but NOT the Rich man as a parable :think:

15. I would wager an electronic copy of Tyndale's English translation that you haven't a single scripture saying that the dead are currently in Paradise.
I win! Luke 23:43 Keep Tyndale. I'm fine.

And speaking of Tyndale, we still have his and my challenge to answer how Christ's answer to the Sadducees, specifically stated for the purpose of proving the resurrection, could have possible proven his point at all if "the dead are alive in any fashion" were the case. If the dead were alive at all, then they wouldn't need a resurrection to qualify God as the God of the Living.
Resurrection "stand up" "raise up" They will be brought up from hades, to heaven.

You can't answer this... not in any non-evasive way, without losing "the dead are conscious" which would be required for a "the dead or tormented or in bliss this side of the resurrection."
Nice try kid. Still 600 to 1. Still "Rosenritter-who?"

By the way, I'll put this out there because a friend of mine points this out. A Conservative Christian Evangelical friend, mind you, of which you said there would be none... that even if you believed "Lazarus and the rich man" were a literal story, there's nothing in there about an eternal duration. It's pre-resurrection, before the destruction of the wicked in the judgment.
Glad you are talking with friends. 1) What denomination does he belong to? He may not be allowed to teach in his church, if he is going against church doctrine. In today's church, some do not take their memberships seriously and lack integrity if they go against their church doctrine by teaching what is opposed to it. I always tell the pastor/congregation where I differ on their doctrinal statements. 2) That the man, for any length of time (2000 years now) is in anguish? LONG time. I've seen this objection and wonder if those who do, are really thinking through their postulation. 3) The Lord Jesus Christ made no apology, by relating truth or analogy about a real place, that the man was in torment. None. That means, the God of the Bible, is somehow all loving. No heathen will care, Rosenritter. You are making a movement, I think in love, but I also believe it is misplaced. We are to Love the Lord Our God, with ALL our heart, ALL our mind, ALL our Strength. When loving our neighbor causes friction and compromise from #1, we are NO LONGER keeping rule #1. We have to always be balanced. The Lord Jesus Christ, whom I love, said the rich man, was in torment. The Lord Jesus Christ, whom I love, said the rich man, was in torment. The Lord Jesus Christ, whom I love, said the rich man, was in torment.

.... as such, it sort of renders even a positive assumption moot for sustaining a belief in Eternal Conscious Torment. Logically and rationally it shouldn't be in one of your top three points because regardless one way or the other, it doesn't technically address the question at hand. Allowing death to not be death might allow ECT to survive to fight another day, but it doesn't discount total destruction to ash that the wicked be no more at Doomsday.
Not really sure the point you are making in this paragraph. I suppose I agree that these 15 or so can be prioritized for their importance. For me, if we are talking about the rich man, it is at the top. The Lord Jesus Christ, whom I love, said the rich man, was in torment.


If you won't answer my question to you because I am a "young pup" ... then will you at least acknowledge Tyndale, who asked the same question? By the way, I am probably not as young as you think.
I think I have addressed it. I may have answered it satisfactorily this post already.
If not satisfactorily, try this: "Lon, I think, from what I understand from you, you'd likely answer Tyndale thus....
...would that be correct or fair in assessment? Thanks"
It'll help me do a better job, as I think I've addressed Tyndale twice now, and if necessary, thanks for the help.
*I realize some condescension meets condescension here. Posturing tends to meet posturing. I'll likely start ignoring the vibrato, but I wanted to reflect it back to you so that you can see it in yourself in clarity. Russians tend to have this same kind of vibrato. I'm not sure what in their culture lends to it, but they carry a lot of false-vibrato and are blind to it being hollow, even among their Christians. I'm not meaning to be prejudice, but it is a trait that I think comes from their previous culture. Something has influenced/forced it.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
Ecclesiastes is part of the preserved scripture, which Peter says was written by the Holy Ghost (1 Peter 1;21) and Paul says is given by inspiration of God, and profitable for doctrine (2 Timothy 3:16). In addition to this, Solomon was specifically given wisdom above other men (2 Chronicles 1:12). In addition, what it says is in agreement with the rest of the holy scripture. The book is part of God's word, and not presented as arguments presented by uninspired men such as the adversaries of Job.

Ecclesiastes is God's argument. The footnotes in the Geneva bible is man's argument. Calvin's Institutes is man's argument. The Matthew Henry commentary is man's argument. Theology Online is full of man's arguments. But Ecclesiastes, and all the scripture, is God's argument.



P.s. Yes, I know that the argument of the serpent is not God's argument, and I know that the nay-saying of Job's friends are not God's argument. The serpent and Job's friends were rebuked. Ecclesiastes was not rebuked.

It's God's record of man's arguments.

For instance, "Eat, drink, and be merry, for tomorrow you die." That is man's argument...not God's. I understand full well why God recorded man's arguments through the Holy Spirit, but it doesn't change the point I made.

Solomon is a picture of man putting forth man's arguments, and then God's effect upon that thinking. When a person reads that book, they have to keep that in mind. We see he says this later....which is a fuller understanding {rebuke) of the text KR shared.

Ecc. 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.​

So this verse cannot be plucked up, partially understood, and claim it's a Biblical truth for doctrine.

Ecclesiastes 9:5 For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.​
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
Glorydaz, you do realize that none of those passages you just quoted implies a never ending torment, don't you? You do know what happens when you throw anything that burns into an unquenchable fire, don't you? It burns up. It's guaranteed because the fire won't be quenched. That's a basic dictionary definition which is also reinforced by other (non hell) references in scripture.

You do realize that I was speaking to Kingdom Ruse, don't you? About Luke 16 not being a metaphor? Those verses I gave addressed her point. They each described exactly what the wicked man was experiencing. If you're so stuck on proving another point that you can't see that, it's not my problem. It's yours. A little to full of yourself, would be my thought. :chew:

Are you trying to claim that a fire that cannot be quenched is impossible with God? Really? I suggest you focus on God's mercy rather than something that, with our human understanding, we might not be able to imagine. You really can't outsmart what is written in scripture.

As far as your advice about how to appeal to Kingdom Ruse, I have no desire to try and convince her. She is blind and deaf to Scripture. She doesn't even accept Jesus Christ is God.
 

Angel4Truth

New member
Hall of Fame
Same greek word used in this verse for both eternal life and eternal torment. As much as i would like it to be annihilation also, i cannot believe it since scripture is clear otherwise, and if i wanted to believe that eternal didnt mean it with the torment, i would also have to believe that life is not eternal either. There is no other way to see it unless you believe life isnt eternal too.

Both cannot be correct.

Verse: Matthew 25:46 "Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life."


That also goes with this:

Daniel 12:2
"Many of those who sleep in the dust of the ground will awake, these to everlasting life, but the others to disgrace and everlasting contempt.
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
Same greek word used in this verse for both eternal life and eternal torment. As much as i would like it to be annihilation also, i cannot believe it since scripture is clear otherwise, and if i wanted to believe that eternal didnt mean it with the torment, i would also have to believe that life is not eternal either. There is no other way to see it unless you believe life isnt eternal too.

Both cannot be correct.

Verse: Matthew 25:46 "Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life."


That also goes with this:

Daniel 12:2
"Many of those who sleep in the dust of the ground will awake, these to everlasting life, but the others to disgrace and everlasting contempt.

agree 100%
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
1Ki 22:17 And he said, “I saw all Israel scattered on the mountains, as sheep that have no shepherd. And the LORD said, ‘These have no master; let each return to his home in peace.’”

1Ki 22:19 And Micaiah said, “Therefore hear the word of the LORD: I saw the LORD sitting on his throne, and all the host of heaven standing beside him on his right hand and on his left;
1Ki 22:20 and the LORD said, ‘Who will entice Ahab, that he may go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead?’ And one said one thing, and another said another.
1Ki 22:21 Then a spirit came forward and stood before the LORD, saying, ‘I will entice him.’
1Ki 22:22 And the LORD said to him, ‘By what means?’ And he said, ‘I will go out, and will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.’ And he said, ‘You are to entice him, and you shall succeed; go out and do so.’
1Ki 22:23 Now therefore behold, the LORD has put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets; the LORD has declared disaster for you.”

1Ki 22:28 And Micaiah said, “If you return in peace, the LORD has not spoken by me

what I see is Ahab's last chance to repent
and God applying the heat that could either
melt or harden Ahab's heart , Ahab harden his heart.

Ahab heard from a prophet of God about his certain death and
rather than repent Ahab harden his heart and died
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
Oh please. Jesus was using METAPHOR to make a point that had nothing to do with literal burning in a fire. Tell me---was Jesus "lying" when he said the Kingdom was like a mustard grain that grew into a tree? (Matt.13:31,32) Or was he using illustrations to get a point across, just like Aesop's Fable about Chicken Little and the "sky is falling" was a commentary on something deeper than the sky actually falling.

Wake up.


Mat 13:31 He put another parable before them, saying, “The kingdom of heaven is like a grain of mustard seed that a man took and sowed in his field.
Mat 13:32 It is the smallest of all seeds, but when it has grown it is larger than all the garden plants and becomes a tree, so that the birds of the air come and make nests in its branches.”

there are such things as , mustard seeds, birds , branches etc.

luke 16:22-24 is true on the face of it , no lies.

Luk 16:22 The poor man died and was carried by the angels to Abraham's side. The rich man also died and was buried,
Luk 16:23 and in Hades, being in torment, he lifted up his eyes and saw Abraham far off and Lazarus at his side.
Luk 16:24 And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue, for I am in anguish in this flame.’



there are such things as consciousness after death and fire that does not consume.
 

Derf

Well-known member
1. Death is not the judgment. Death is the penalty of sin, of which judgment might pronounce that we will receive this penalty in full.
Agreed--my wording was poor. My point is that the penalty usually follows the judgment, and the exercise of judgment is the implementation of the penalty. So if the penalty is already assessed, though judgment has not occurred, there is a miscarriage of justice--which God would never be guilty of.

Therefore, if God is just, and justice has been fairly applied, then our deaths must mean that we have been judged and found wanting, at least to some degree.

2. The miracle and fact that Jesus, having the power over life and death, has promised to and will raise everyone who has ever lived, both the just and the unjust. Acts 24:15 "And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust." Why? Because our Creator has planned it that way and will do it. If he didn't raise us, the first death would be permanent, and then being slain in this life would be eternal punishment.
Thanks for that verse. I was lacking that clearer exhibit of the resurrection of the unjust.

But your answer to "why" leaves me unsatisfied. It removes the need to understand ANYTHING, or even to reason at all, since "God planned it and will do it", whatever "it" is. I'll touch on the "why" question again below.


3. Yes, I agree. Actually I never anticipated that anyone could read it otherwise.
I didn't think others could either, and your Acts 24:15 quote reinforces my opinion. But it was part of the argument flow. If the unjust are resurrected bodily, then the bodily part of their penalty must not be complete--or there is a new charge to be adjudicated.


4. God alone has the power over life and death, so the answer is God (Jesus). In what circumstances? Everyone is being raised once, after he returns, destroying the world powers that would rise against him and finally establishing a kingdom under his rule, since by that point we should have gotten fed up with seeing what happens when we rule ourselves. "Knowledge of good and evil" really isn't such an awesome choice.
The "why" question comes to mind again. Why do the once dead need to be raised to die again? I'll discuss your answers below.


5. Yes, why would Jesus raise the dead to the resurrection of damnation? I can give you a couple reasons that come to mind, including closure and the potential for repentance. Some people might argue that it would be unjust for God to forgive anyone who repents in the final day, and to that I would suggest that maybe we need to learn more about our God from what he left for us in scripture. Don't be like Jonah and become angry if God chooses to be merciful. That's his right.
Jesus also talks about the workers that come near the end of the day, yet get the same payment. I'm ok with that argument--including the potential for repentance. I wonder about the timing and what appears to be a prejudgment: Blessed and holy [is] he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years. [Rev 20:6 KJV]. But perhaps the first judgment includes those that are faithful in this life, while the unfaithful aren't precluded from repenting between resurrection and judgment. Once again, though, if there's no consciousness between the time of death and the resurrection, then what has changed for those people? Perhaps God gives them another chance with just the offer. Or perhaps He nudges them toward belief with a temporary punishment/chastisement. I'm not completely committed to either, and I have a hard time finding it in scripture.

I'm not real fond of the idea that God needs some kind of nebulous "closure", unless it is to complete an unfinished judgment or promise.

Compared to what people do to each other on this earth, even what you described there is pretty slight. How hot is a fire so large that it is described as a lake? I can't say. That's not really important. But even assuming it is the fire uses for the mechanism that kills, fires that are hot enough could kill before someone hits the ground. Nebuchadnezzar's furnace killed his own guards as they were throwing in the Hebrews. Fire is really about the finality of destruction, not pain.
If we are judged according to our deeds, what you've laid out here doesn't sound like justice. In other words, if we are rewarded, if I can use the term here, with just death for a lifetime of torturing other people, compared to a single act of stealing, for instance, now God seems more like a sadist--He allows horrific acts while a person is alive, but then doesn't require an eye for an eye or tooth for tooth. Rather He provides an instantaneous transition to oblivion.



No one is saved by Christ's death.
So now Christ's death was unnecessary for salvation? Are you sure you want to go there?
We are saved by God's grace, which is freely given to those that put their faith in him. Some people may have never heard anything resembling the gospel, but because they will be resurrected, they will face judgment. The judge of the quick and the dead is the same as the mediator between God and men, the same God that takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but wills that he repent, and is willing to wipe out transgressions. It doesn't matter whether someone died before or after the physical event of Christ's death. We are saved by grace through faith.
We are, and apparently our knowledge of the truth isn't all the same. I'm not sure how that works--in the full spectrum of those who are saved, are there some saved that have so little knowledge of Christ's death (either past or future) that they could be said to have none? That presents a conundrum for me. If Christ's death is sufficient to allow for the resurrection of all of mankind, meaning he has paid the debt of death, and the only thing left is whether someone believes in Christ or not, those that have not heard have not had the chance to reject Him or accept Him. Thus, if the final judgment (whatever the penalty might be) is due to rejection or acceptance of Christ's sacrifice, what happens to those that haven't heard? The standard Christian answer is that they are doomed. I'm not so sure, but I don't have a good scriptural reason, except relying on the perfect justness of God.

I think I would also add in that faith in God includes willingness to keep his commandments.

a) Love God Mark 12:30
b) Love thy neighbor Mark 12:31
c) Love your enemies Matthew 5:44, Luke 6:27, 35
d) Love one another John 13:34
e) without a love of the truth we cannot be saved 2 Thessalonians 2:10

Revelation 22:14 KJV
(14) Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
Amen. This seems to be the visible manifestation of acceptance of Christ's authority in our lives.

7. You are technically correct. More correct on that point.

8. The children of Abraham that could call him "Father" were all recipients of Moses and the prophets. Considering that he has five brothers this rules out Isaac or Jacob. If it is said that his brothers had Moses and the prophets, it would be hard to say how he would be excluded.
And I would apply much of that argument to Lazarus as well. My point was not that the rich man was excluded, but that Lazarus wasn't either, anymore than he was--at least by Jesus and/or Abraham, as you acknowledged in #7. The rich man could well be said to have excluded Lazarus, as well as the Gentiles.

I take some issue with your exclusion of Isaac and Jacob and not Judah. Judah, personally, did NOT have Moses and the prophets. Nor did any of his brothers. If you go down that path to prove Judah, you have to go down that path to disprove him as well.

Romans 3:1-2 KJV
(1) What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
(2) Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.

The rich man is Judah. Or more precisely, the rich man is the symbol of of the people of Judah. That's why he has five brothers. They are named Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Issachar, and Zebulan (see Genesis 35:23) He is described as wearing purple and fine linen because those identify which brother he is, they are associated with Judah in the prophecy in Genesis 49:8-12, "The sceptre shall not depart from Judah.... he washed his garments in wine, and his clothes in the blood of grapes..." Considering he addressed this to the Pharisees and his prophecy is about the Jewish nation, can you think of anything more fitting?

Judah (and especially the Pharisees) had Moses and the prophets. They ignored them. John 5:39, Luke 24:27
I can think of something more fitting. The pharisees were rulers of the people (denoted by the color of his clothing), and had the ability to deny the good things in life to others (Matt 23:13), along with at least the scribes. The "richness" of the rich man was therefore not just richness of money and goods, but richness of access to the truths of scripture. The "poorness" of Lazarus was then poorness of access to the truths of scripture--similar in nature and extent to the poorness of the Gentiles as previously discussed. The scribes are one of the rich man's brothers, perhaps. The number of brothers isn't necessarily directly correlatable to a real set of things or people or groups, but could easily be a reference to the attempt to achieve salvation through works of man--the number "6" indicating man. There are others that could be numbered, like the priests (who fleeced the people at the temple through the money changers), the Saducees, the Herodeans. I'm missing one, so I'll take nominations. But I'm a little partial to the man-centered religion denoted by the number 6. Your #9 below supports this interpretation, if Lazarus's help is God. This is not original with me, but I think it's better than your Judah connection.

9. The name Lazarus has meaning, "God is his help" and also rubs some salt in the wounds about the other Lazarus. I suppose we might allow this Lazarus to be Jewish as well, but his association is with those despised by the Jews, the dogs (Matthew 15:26, Mark 7:28). But look at the further dog reference here that also matches to gospel accounts:

Matthew 15:27 KJV
(27) And she said, Truth, Lord: yet the dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their masters' table.

I have found it a pretty good rule that the Bible does a good job of interpreting its own symbols. If the dogs are gentiles and seek crumbs from the master's table, then Lazarus, licked by dogs, also desiring crumbs from the master's table, does seem like a dog.

Besides, the "great gulf fixed" between the two characters would be fitting for the Jew-Gentile separation that was deemed insurmountable. Rich Jews might not think highly of poor Jews, but that wasn't that inseparable barrier.
As pointed out above, the rich/poor barrier was not a monetary thing. In fact, if Lazarus in the story is connected with Lazarus who rose from the dead, then there's plenty of reason to believe that he was somewhat wealthy, but still outside the elite of the religious classes of the 6, or they would be less likely to want to murder him after his resurrection. Now I'm the one speculating...
And when Lazarus ends up where the rich man expects he should be, in the symbol of Jewish reward, it's awfully ironic when the rich man finds himself in the picture of Gentile hell. These are reasons I lean towards Gentile: the symbols all seem to point in that direction. If those details weren't significant, why would the bear special mention?
I think you're prejudiced by your interpretation. No offense taken--we all think of our own interpretations as best.
 
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way 2 go

Well-known member
Were this spoken outside of a parable, you would have a point Way 2 Go.
not a parable and as Lon has pointed out no bible labels it a parable.

However, according to your standard, yes, he did lie.

Jesus only talked about things that actually exist.



He said there was a man who married ten virgins at once, but cast five out.

what existence are you disputing , the existence of virgins ?


He said there was a man who praised his wicked servant for cheating him even more

what existence are you disputing managers or wicked servants ?



If you continue to confuse "fictional element" with the label "lie" then by your own standard, you call Jesus a liar.

Jesus only talked about things that actually exist
consciousness after death and fire that does not consume.

Luk 16:22 The poor man died and was carried by the angels to Abraham's side. The rich man also died and was buried,
Luk 16:23 and in Hades, being in torment, he lifted up his eyes and saw Abraham far off and Lazarus at his side.
Luk 16:24 And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue, for I am in anguish in this flame.’
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
not a parable and as Lon has pointed out no bible labels it a parable.



Jesus only talked about things that actually exist.





what existence are you disputing , the existence of virgins ?




what existence are you disputing managers or wicked servants ?





Jesus only talked about things that actually exist
consciousness after death and fire that does not consume.

Luk 16:22 The poor man died and was carried by the angels to Abraham's side. The rich man also died and was buried,
Luk 16:23 and in Hades, being in torment, he lifted up his eyes and saw Abraham far off and Lazarus at his side.
Luk 16:24 And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue, for I am in anguish in this flame.’

:thumb:
 

Rosenritter

New member
Let's condense a little more:

1) Lon, for all your talk of majority and saying I'm not Martin Luther, it's rather ironic because on this particular topic (that the dead are truly dead) you actually ARE arguing against Martin Luther. Luther said he would die and awake at the resurrection as if from a sleep. Thomas More attacked Tyndale saying that he believed as Luther, that the dead felt nothing between now and the resurrection. So drop the "I am the majority so get lost" defense. It has no place in an honest Berean accounting of doctrine.

One one hand it seems that you say "scripture only" but in practice that hasn't seemed to be the case.

2) For some reason, even given their wide differences, John Calvin, Martin Luther, and King James all agreed that the "spirit of Samuel" was a demonic apparition! What do you think is going to happen if you go find a necromancer medium and ask her to summon the dead for you? If you ask a OUIJA board to talk to Jesus, who do you think is really going to answer? Do you think witches have the power to disturb the saints of God? They all gave their own reasons. John Calvin even believed that the saints were conscious, so you could call him a hostile witness in this regard.

No, that spirit that answered to the name of Samuel was not the the same prophet. And you may try to belittle me, but can you do the same for Luther, Calvin, and King James? Are you going to say that they aren't allowed to play either? Address this on its merits if you want to go there. Show me why you think that a voice that peeps and mutters, that Saul cannot see but the medium describes as "an old man with a mantle" will be the actual Samuel. If you want to be diligent, see what Luther, Calvin, and King James already said on the subject.

3) My bible doesn't call the Parable of the Prodigal Son a "parable" - though I suppose it would, if I were to use a ballpoint pen or marker and write in the margin. You lost this point Lon. Just admit to yourself that it doesn't carry the weight that you thought it did so we can save space. Or do you want to go looking through stacks of paper bibles to find one with a footnote you like, and claim that as the authority of scripture?It seems a lot like you're grasping at straws with an argument like that.

4) Read again Lon. Luke 23:43 KJV "Verily I say unto thee, today shalt thou be with me in Paradise" doesn't say that the dead are in Paradise then or yet. At least the King James doesn't. You could probably get an NIV that does. The promise is given that day, the fulfillment is at a later date. If you don't understand the grammar I can help with that, and aside from authorities like "The King's English" we have scriptural examples proving the application.

5) Lon, you never answered my question, which I admit I adopted from Tyndale. You are making the same postulation as Sir Thomas More whom Tyndale addressed, and as such his question is also to you. Stop dodging.

Here is Tyndale's response to your assertion the that dead are alive, be it in Paradise, Heaven, Limbo, or what not. He said that in doing so you deny Christ's very own argument.

And when he proveth that the saints be in heaven in glory with Christ already, saying, ‘If God be their God, they be in heaven, for is not the God of the dead;’ there he stealeth away Christ’s argument, wherewith he proveth the resurrection: that Abraham and all saints should rise again, and not that their souls were in heaven, which doctrine was not yet in the world. And with that doctrine he taketh away the resurrection quite and maketh Christ’s argument of none effect. For when Christ allegeth the scripture, that God is Abraham’s God, and addeth to, that God is not God of the dead but of the living, and so proveth that Abraham must rise again, I deny Christ’s argument, and I say with M. More, that Abraham is yet alive, not because of the resurrection, but because his soul is in heaven.

And in like manner, Paul’s argument unto the Corinthians is nought worth: for when he saith, ‘If there be no resurrection, we be of all wretches the miserablest; here we have no pleasure, but sorrow, care, and oppression; and therefore, if we rise not again, all our suffering is in vain: ‘ ‘Nay, Paul, thou art un-learned; go to Master More, and learn a new way. We be not most miserable, though we rise not again; for our souls go to heaven as soon as we be dead, and are there in as great joy as Christ that is risen again.’ And I marvel that Paul had not comforted the Thessalonians with that doctrine, if he had wist it, that the souls of their dead had been in joy; as he did with the resurrection, that their dead should rise again. If the souls be in heaven, in as great glory as the angels, after your doctrine, shew me what cause should be of the resurrection?

Let's put this another way Lon. If the dead are alive in any fashion, then Christ failed to prove the resurrection in any form, with the very statement he said was for the purpose of proving the resurrection. The only way you can force his words into saying "the dead are currently alive" is by taking Christ's words completely out of their stated context.

Far from proving your point, this passage happens to destroy it.
 
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