Honest struggles on God’s omniscience.

Idolater

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If Jesus knew Judas didn't believe when He chose him to be one of the 12, it is not hard to believe that Jesus knew he would betray Him, especially since Judas was continuing his evil ways (he stole from the "bag"). Jesus probably even encouraged Judas in his deception by exalting the woman who poured expensive perfume on Him, because He chastized Judas. But why does that mean Jesus knows every decision you and I will ever make? Do you think God encourages us in every decision we make?

First, did He already know the answer to the question He posed, "Will ye also go away?"
 

Derf

Well-known member
First, did He already know the answer to the question He posed, "Will ye also go away?"
At what time? When He first chose them (no, I don't think so)? At the time He asked the question (maybe)? or at the time He was arrested in the Garden (yes, and they did)?
 

Nick M

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70 Jesus answered them, “Did I not choose you, the twelve, and one of you is a devil?” 71 He spoke of Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon, for it was he who would betray Him, being one of the twelve.

It is amazing, but maybe it shouldn't be, how many people that engage in theology on X either don't know what the Bible says, or ignore it because it shows they are wrong.
 

Derf

Well-known member
70 Jesus answered them, “Did I not choose you, the twelve, and one of you is a devil?” 71 He spoke of Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon, for it was he who would betray Him, being one of the twelve.

It is amazing, but maybe it shouldn't be, how many people that engage in theology on X either don't know what the Bible says, or ignore it because it shows they are wrong.
is that supposed to be addressed to me?
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
So what did he really mean? If you say it doesn't mean what it says, then tell us. Don't be like that lost soul godrulz.
like I said
so the open theist wants us to believe God was prophesying his own sacrifice for the sin of the world without knowing whether Abraham would do it . Genesis 22:12 ,Revelation 13:8

God said : "now I know you fear me " Not that God gained new information , he said it for Abraham’s and Isaac’s benefit as praising a child for doing what you knew they would do
 

Derf

Well-known member
like I said
so the open theist wants us to believe God was prophesying his own sacrifice for the sin of the world without knowing whether Abraham would do it . Genesis 22:12 ,Revelation 13:8

God said : "now I know you fear me " Not that God gained new information , he said it for Abraham’s and Isaac’s benefit as praising a child for doing what you knew they would do
Saying something for a child's benefit doesn't mean one has to give a false statement.
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
Open Theists are not “denying Scripture” merely because we refuse to accept the Classical Theist interpretation of passages where God repents, relents, tests, investigates, responds, or says “now I know.”

The accusation was that Open Theists deny Scripture.

Derf’s point was that this accusation is empty, because anyone can throw it back the other direction.

The real question is not, “Do you deny Scripture?”, but rather “Which interpretation actually follows the text?”
the question is still , Do open theist deny Scripture ?

open theist like to take a text and then pretend the rest of scripture does not exist and interpret the text without scripture

open theist have God needing to go to sodom to figure it out if the place was evil , so much for all knowing ,


(Genesis 18:21) I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which has come to Me. And if not, I will know

God knew

(Genesis 13:13) But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the LORD, exceedingly so.
 

JudgeRightly

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like I said
so the open theist wants us to believe God was prophesying his own sacrifice for the sin of the world without knowing whether Abraham would do it. Genesis 22:12 ,Revelation 13:8

This has already been addressed.

Repeating it as though it has not been answered does not make the argument stronger. It only makes it look like you cannot actually deal with the answer.

You are assuming that Abraham’s offering of Isaac was necessary in order for God to accomplish redemption.

Was it?

If Abraham had refused, would God have been unable to redeem the world?

Would Christ have been unable to die for sin?

Would God’s purpose have failed?

I do not believe God is that weak.

Abraham’s offering of Isaac was a type and shadow of what God Himself would do through Christ. But Abraham’s obedience was not the foundation of God’s ability to redeem mankind.

God can have His own purpose, His own plan, His own Son, and His own power to bring redemption to pass.

Genesis 22:12 still says “now I know.”

Revelation 13:8 does not erase that.

God said: "now I know you fear me" Not that God gained new information,

Because you say He didn't?

The whole ordeal was God testing Abraham's faith in Him.

And the text gives the result of the test:

And He said, “Do not lay your hand on the lad, or do anything to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me.”

The word “since” matters.

God ties the knowledge to Abraham’s completed action.

“Now I know... since you have not withheld your son.”

That is the reason the text gives.

You are replacing that reason with your own.

You say God did not gain new information.

The passage says “now I know.”

You say God already knew what Abraham would do.

The passage says God tested Abraham, Abraham obeyed, and then God said “now I know.”

That is not my wording.

That is Scripture.

he said it for Abraham’s and Isaac’s benefit as praising a child for doing what you knew they would do

Again, because you say so?

The passage does not say God was praising Abraham.

The passage does not say God already knew and was only speaking for Abraham’s and Isaac’s benefit.

The passage says God tested Abraham, Abraham obeyed, and then God said:

“Now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me.”

Saying something for someone else’s benefit does not require giving a false explanation.

If God already knew Abraham would do it, He could have said:

“I knew you would obey, and now you and Isaac know it too.”

But that is not what He said.

He said, “now I know.”

You are not explaining the text. You are explaining it away.

the question is still, Do open theist deny Scripture?

The answer is still no.

Open Theists are the ones insisting that the passages mean what they actually say.

God repented.
God relented.
God tested Abraham.
God said “now I know.”
God went down to see.
God responded to what men did.

You are the one repeatedly saying, “It does not really mean that.”

So if anyone is in danger of denying Scripture, it is the person who keeps explaining away the passages that do not fit his theology... YOU!

open theist like to take a text and then pretend the rest of scripture does not exist and interpret the text without scripture

Talk about projection...

We are comparing Scripture with Scripture.

Genesis 22 says God tested Abraham and then said “now I know.”

Genesis 6 says God was sorry He made man.

Jonah 3 says God saw Nineveh’s works and relented from the disaster He said He would bring.

Jeremiah 18 says God may speak concerning a nation to destroy it, but if that nation turns from evil, God will relent.

Genesis 18 says God went down to see whether Sodom had done altogether according to the outcry, and “if not, I will know.”

That is Scripture interpreting Scripture.

You are the one importing Classical Theism into the text and then forcing all of those passages to mean something other than what they say.

open theist have God needing to go to sodom to figure it out if the place was evil,

That's.... Literally what Scripture says...

“I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which has come to Me. And if not, I will know.”

God says He will go down and see.

God says, “if not, I will know.”

You are offended at the plain wording of the passage because it does not fit your system.

so much for all knowing,

No, so much for your imposed definition of “all knowing.”

God can know what can be known.

The question is whether every future free choice already exists as a settled fact before the person makes it.

You assume it does.

Then when Scripture presents God testing, investigating, relenting, responding, and saying “now I know,” you complain that we are denying God’s attributes.

No.

We are denying your philosophical definition of those attributes and your attempt to impose that definition onto the text.

There is a difference.

(Genesis 18:21) I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which has come to Me. And if not, I will know

God knew

(Genesis 13:13) But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the LORD, exceedingly so.

Genesis 13:13 says the men of Sodom were wicked and exceedingly sinful.

Nobody denies that.

But Genesis 18:21 is not asking whether Sodom had wicked men in it.

The issue is whether they had done altogether according to the outcry against it.
In other words, the passage presents God as investigating the full measure of the accusation before judgment.

That is not a problem for Open Theism.

That is righteous judgment.

God does not judge on rumor. He judges according to truth.

So Genesis 13:13 does not erase Genesis 18:21.

It only tells us Sodom was already wicked.
Genesis 18 tells us God investigated whether the outcry against Sodom was fully accurate before bringing judgment.

And again, your answer is to make the text theatrical.

God says:

“I will go down now and see... and if not, I will know.”

You say:

“God knew.”

Then why did He say it that way?

You need to stop merely asserting “God knew” and start proving from the text that “I will go down and see... and if not, I will know” actually means “I already know exhaustively and am only pretending to investigate.”

Because that is not what the passage says.
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
What if Abraham told him no. He can't kill his own child?
you think God didn't know ?

(Genesis 3:9) And the LORD God called to Adam and said to him, Where are you?
(Genesis 3:11) And He said, Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten of the tree which I commanded you that you should not eat?
(Genesis 18:21) I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which has come to Me. And if not, I will know
(Genesis 13:13) But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the LORD, exceedingly so.
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
This has already been addressed.

Repeating it as though it has not been answered does not make the argument stronger. It only makes it look like you cannot actually deal with the answer.

You are assuming that Abraham’s offering of Isaac was necessary in order for God to accomplish redemption.

Was it?

If Abraham had refused, would God have been unable to redeem the world?
God was prophesying his own sacrifice for the sin of the world
God already knew Abraham was faithful

the question is still , Do open theist deny Scripture ?

open theist like to take a text and then pretend the rest of scripture does not exist and interpret the text without scripture

(Genesis 15:6) And he believed in the LORD. And He counted it to him for righteousness.

Would Christ have been unable to die for sin?

Would God’s purpose have failed?

I do not believe God is that weak.

Abraham’s offering of Isaac was a type and shadow of what God Himself would do through Christ. But Abraham’s obedience was not the foundation of God’s ability to redeem mankind.

God can have His own purpose, His own plan, His own Son, and His own power to bring redemption to pass.

Genesis 22:12 still says “now I know.”

Revelation 13:8 does not erase that.
God already knew Abraham's faith
(Genesis 15:6) And he believed in the LORD. And He counted it to him for righteousness.
God knows thew future
Revelation 13:8 backs that up "slain from the foundation of the world"

Because you say He didn't?

The whole ordeal was God testing Abraham's faith in Him.

And the text gives the result of the test:

And He said, “Do not lay your hand on the lad, or do anything to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me.”

The word “since” matters.

God ties the knowledge to Abraham’s completed action.

“Now I know... since you have not withheld your son.”

That is the reason the text gives.

You are replacing that reason with your own.

You say God did not gain new information.

The passage says “now I know.”

You say God already knew what Abraham would do.

The passage says God tested Abraham, Abraham obeyed, and then God said “now I know.”

That is not my wording.

That is Scripture.
God already knew Abraham's faith and He counted it to him for righteousness
(Genesis 15:6) And he believed in the LORD. And He counted it to him for righteousness.

(Romans 4:2-3) [2] For if Abraham were justified by works, he has whereof to glory; but not before God. [3] For what says the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

open theist like to take a text and then pretend the rest of scripture does not exist and interpret the text without scripture
Again, because you say so?

The passage does not say God was praising Abraham.

The passage does not say God already knew and was only speaking for Abraham’s and Isaac’s benefit.

The passage says God tested Abraham, Abraham obeyed, and then God said:

“Now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me.”

Saying something for someone else’s benefit does not require giving a false explanation.

If God already knew Abraham would do it, He could have said:

“I knew you would obey, and now you and Isaac know it too.”

But that is not what He said.

He said, “now I know.”

You are not explaining the text. You are explaining it away.
supra

The answer is still no.
the question is still , Do open theist deny Scripture ?

open theist like to take a text and then pretend the rest of scripture does not exist and interpret the text without scripture
Open Theists are the ones insisting that the passages mean what they actually say.

God repented.
God relented.
God tested Abraham.
God said “now I know.”
God went down to see.
God responded to what men did.

You are the one repeatedly saying, “It does not really mean that.”
it sometimes takes more than a verse to understand
Use clear verses to interpret difficult or less clear verses

(Acts 17:11) These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.



(Genesis 18:21) I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which has come to Me. And if not, I will know

God knew

(Genesis 13:13) But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the LORD, exceedingly so.

So if anyone is in danger of denying Scripture, it is the person who keeps explaining away the passages that do not fit his theology... YOU!
I deny your out of context of the rest of scripture interpretation of verses
Talk about projection...

We are comparing Scripture with Scripture.

Genesis 22 says God tested Abraham and then said “now I know.”
God already knew
(Genesis 15:6) And he believed in the LORD. And He counted it to him for righteousness.
Genesis 6 says God was sorry He made man.
we're still here
Jonah 3 says God saw Nineveh’s works and relented from the disaster He said He would bring.
God knew they needed to be preached to so they would repent

(Romans 10:14-15) [14] How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher? [15] and how shall they preach, except they be sent? even as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that bring glad tidings of good things!
Jeremiah 18 says God may speak concerning a nation to destroy it, but if that nation turns from evil, God will relent.
a verse , not a theology
Genesis 18 says God went down to see whether Sodom had done altogether according to the outcry, and “if not, I will know.”

That is Scripture interpreting Scripture.
(Genesis 13:13) But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the LORD, exceedingly so.
You are the one importing Classical Theism into the text and then forcing all of those passages to mean something other than what they say.
you mean using all of scripture , yes I am guilty
That's.... Literally what Scripture says...

“I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which has come to Me. And if not, I will know.”

God says He will go down and see.

God says, “if not, I will know.”

You are offended at the plain wording of the passage because it does not fit your system.
your literal translation has God who knows the numbers of the hairs on your head not knowing what he already revealed he knew

(Genesis 13:13) But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the LORD, exceedingly so.
No, so much for your imposed definition of “all knowing.”
it's your half baked view of God , you pay lip service to God but don't really believe what you say

infra.
God can know what can be known.
you don't really believe that ,as shown above
The question is whether every future free choice already exists as a settled fact before the person makes it.

You assume it does.

Then when Scripture presents God testing, investigating, relenting, responding, and saying “now I know,” you complain that we are denying God’s attributes.

No.

We are denying your philosophical definition of those attributes and your attempt to impose that definition onto the text.

There is a difference.
God says he Knows the future you assume God doesn't know and liken to plane travel

(Romans 8:29-30) [29] For whom he foreknew, he also foreordained to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren: [30] and whom he foreordained, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

you pretend this is not settled
(Revelation of John 9:20-21) [20] And the rest of the men who were not killed by these plagues still did not repent of the works of their hands, that they should not worship demons, and golden, and silver, and bronze, and stone, and wooden idols (which neither can see, nor hear, nor walk). [21] And they did not repent of their murders, nor of their sorceries, nor of their fornication, nor of their thefts.


(Revelation of John 16:9-11) [9] And men were burned with great heat. And they blasphemed the name of God, He having authority over these plagues. And they did not repent in order to give Him glory. [10] And the fifth angel poured out his vial on the throne of the beast, and its kingdom became darkened. And they gnawed their tongues from the pain. [11] And they blasphemed the God of Heaven because of their pains and their sores. And they did not repent of their deeds.
Genesis 13:13 says the men of Sodom were wicked and exceedingly sinful.

Nobody denies that.

But Genesis 18:21 is not asking whether Sodom had wicked men in it.

The issue is whether they had done altogether according to the outcry against it.
In other words, the passage presents God as investigating the full measure of the accusation before judgment.
God knows
(Matthew 12:36) But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment
 
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