No.
Asking you to provide biblical support for a claim you're making is not an argument from silence.
(Acts 15:18) All His works are known to God from eternity.
John 1:1, John 1:14, John 8:58, John 10:30-33, John 20:28, Hebrews 1:8.
The deity of Christ is established by Scripture without requiring the precise sentence "I am God."
and yet people deny Jesus is God
Now demonstrate how Scripture establishes exhaustive, infallible foreknowledge of every future human choice.
(Acts 15:18) All His works are known to God from eternity.
Nobody is arguing that foreknowledge is a force.
ok
And where, exactly, did
@Right Divider claim that God makes people sin?
here, his answer to my question : #22 Yes, there are some things that God knows will happen because He has the power to make them come to pass!
I asked did God make them sin ?
(Psalms 22:14-18) [14] I am poured out like water, and all my bones are out of joint: my heart is like wax; it is melted in the midst of my bowels. [15] My strength is dried up like a potsherd; and my tongue cleaveth to my jaws; and thou hast brought me into the dust of death. [16] For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet. [17] I may tell all my bones: they look and stare upon me. [18] They part my garments among them, and cast lots upon my vesture.
The issue is whether an action can genuinely be otherwise if God already infallibly knows that it will occur.
Causation has nothing to do with the logical argument.
God knows what you freely choose
that being said God chose us first , He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world , before we existed.
(Ephesians 1:4) according as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love,
(John 15:16) You have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you
And what does either passage establish about exhaustive, infallible foreknowledge?
In John 15:16, Christ is addressing His disciples concerning their appointment to bear fruit.
In Ephesians 1:4, Paul is describing God's purpose for those who are in Christ.
Neither passage states that God infallibly knows every future choice of every human being.
You're confusing God's ability to choose people and accomplish His purposes with exhaustive knowledge of every decision anyone will ever make.
Those are not the same thing.
And even if you established that God foreknew a particular person's salvation, you still wouldn't have established exhaustive foreknowledge.
That's the distinction you keep failing to address.
ignoring the evidence doesn't make it go away as you like to say ,didn't address the bolded part did you ?
(Ephesians 1:4)
according as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love,
And even if you established that God foreknew a particular person's salvation, you still wouldn't have established exhaustive foreknowledge.
in order to choose us
in Him before the foundation of the world ,
God has to have exhaustive infallible foreknowledge how else could God foreknow of your existence without knowing all the details
that had to happen for you to come into existence .
(1 person odds of existence roughly
1 in 10⁷,⁵⁰⁰ — a 1 followed by 7,500 zeros.)
(Romans 8:29)
For whom He foreknew, means before you existed
(Romans 11:2) God did not thrust out
His people whom He foreknew. The Jews God foreknew and chose by election
Peter (I Peter 1:2)
chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you, and peace be multiplied
the disciples believed God has exhaustive infallible foreknowledge
(Psalms 139:16) Thine eyes saw my unformed substance, and i
n thy book they were all written, even the days that were ordained, when as yet there was none of them.
(Jeremiah 1:5)
Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee, and
before thou came forth out of the womb I sanctified thee. I have appointed thee a prophet to the nations
