God's Exhaustive Foreknowledge

[JudgeRightly]

is there a verse that says that and if not then God does not have exhaustive infallible foreknowledge is that your argument ?
that would be a logical fallacy , argument from silence

No.

Asking you to provide biblical support for a claim you're making is not an argument from silence.

And that isn't even the argument being presented. We've provided positive arguments demonstrating why exhaustive, infallible foreknowledge is incompatible with libertarian free will.

You're welcome to challenge those arguments, but merely attaching the name of a logical fallacy to something you don't understand doesn't refute anything.

where does Jesus say "I am God" ?
Jesus never said that , does that mean Jesus is not God , of course not

John 1:1, John 1:14, John 8:58, John 10:30-33, John 20:28, Hebrews 1:8.

The deity of Christ is established by Scripture without requiring the precise sentence "I am God."

Now demonstrate how Scripture establishes exhaustive, infallible foreknowledge of every future human choice.

unsupported statement . will ignore .

You've been given supporting arguments repeatedly.

Refusing to engage with them doesn't make them disappear.

trying to argue foreknowledge is a force ?
or trying to retract your statement that God makes people sin ?

Nobody is arguing that foreknowledge is a force.

And where, exactly, did @Right Divider claim that God makes people sin?

The issue is whether an action can genuinely be otherwise if God already infallibly knows that it will occur.

Causation has nothing to do with the logical argument.

the elect still have to be called so they can choose . ¯_(ツ)_/¯

(John 15:16) You have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you and ordained you that you should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain; that whatever you shall ask of the Father in My name, He may give it to you

(Ephesians 1:4) according as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love,

And what does either passage establish about exhaustive, infallible foreknowledge?

In John 15:16, Christ is addressing His disciples concerning their appointment to bear fruit.

In Ephesians 1:4, Paul is describing God's purpose for those who are in Christ.

Neither passage states that God infallibly knows every future choice of every human being.

You're confusing God's ability to choose people and accomplish His purposes with exhaustive knowledge of every decision anyone will ever make.

Those are not the same thing.

And even if you established that God foreknew a particular person's salvation, you still wouldn't have established exhaustive foreknowledge.

That's the distinction you keep failing to address.