Does God forgive and forget our sins?

Hilltrot

Well-known member
Yes, only God is qualified to reconcile man to Himself.

"To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation."
2 Corinthians 5:18-19 NKJV
Now all things are of God, who has reconciled us to Himself through Jesus Christ, and has given us the ministry of reconciliation, [19] that is, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not imputing their trespasses to them, and has committed to us the word of reconciliation.

Read the verse in context. There is nothing which says only God can reconcile people to himself. Only the Calvinists believe that. Are you and Right Divider are now Calvinists?
He was promised, because He already existed before He was sent.

"...who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men." Phil 2:6-7

"Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." Phil 2:8
This is a key set of verses showing Jesus is not God. Notice that it says he was in the form of God - not he is God. How was he in the form of God? He was God's Son and had divine position and authority. The next phrase is a key phrase emphasized by Paul in Romans 5. Adam attempted to become equal with God which caused his downfall, while Jesus did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped. This obedience unto death would not redeem humanity if Jesus were God. Jesus being human was key.

Jesus humbled himself by not using his position for his own ends. This is why Satan offers him all the kingdoms of the world. This is a nonsensical temptation if Jesus is God. The temptation is very real for someone for someone who will die on a cross. Jesus had the position of the Son of God. He humbled himself by not taking advantage of this position and choosing to obey God and die on the cross.
"Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil" Heb 2:14

God partook of flesh and blood. If Jesus was only a promise, then no one partook. You must already exist in order to partake of that which you had yet to share.
Hebrews 2:14-18 NLT
Because God’s children are human beings—made of flesh and blood—the Son also became flesh and blood. For only as a human being could he die, and only by dying could he break the power of the devil, who had the power of death. [15] Only in this way could he set free all who have lived their lives as slaves to the fear of dying.

[16] We also know that the Son did not come to help angels; he came to help the descendants of Abraham. [17] Therefore, it was necessary for him to be made in every respect like us, his brothers and sisters, so that he could be our merciful and faithful High Priest before God. Then he could offer a sacrifice that would take away the sins of the people. [18] Since he himself has gone through suffering and testing, he is able to help us when we are being tested.

The problem is that you're trying to fit "Jesus is God" into the Bible. The passage is clearing going out of its way to make sure everyone understands that Jesus is human and that he is not some divine being. As for the word "partook", you're reading far too much into it. Yes, God's promise had to be human. In that way the promise "partook".

"Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross." Phil 2:5-8

In order for Jesus to take upon Himself the form of a bond servant and be made in the likeness of men, He had to of already been in existence, and He was... IN THE FORM OF GOD.
You quoted the same passage in a previous translation, my explanation remains the same.

Reminds me of:

None of them can by any means redeem his brother, Nor give to God a ransom for him—For the redemption of their souls is costly, And it shall cease forever—That he should continue to live eternally, And not see the Pit. - Psalm 49:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm49:7-9&version=NKJV
That's Anselm's soteriology. There are other soteriologies out there. You might want to look around.
Show me the scriptures that says what you said
He quoted 1 John 4:2. If you lack Bible knowledge, Google is your friend.
 

Hilltrot

Well-known member
Who?

All I did was quote the Bible. I didn't quote anyone else.
No you didn't. The passage you quoted involves buying one's way out of death with gold and has nothing to do with Jesus having to be God to redeem everyone. (see verse 15) That idea starts with Anselm.
 

Caino

Well-known member
It is said that God is all knowing

If that is true, then if God forgot anything, that would be one thing that God does not know.

If God literally forgot one sin someone did, then God would no longer be all knowing.

So maybe we have to find out if scriptures tells us if God is all knowing or not
God is Love, Love forgets sin which is deliberate disloyalty to deity.

You are splitting hairs with some kind of technicality based argument which ignores the context of forgiveness.
 

Hilltrot

Well-known member
You are a liar. He simply quoted a passage directly from the Bible.
His quote was a response to
Yes, only God is qualified to reconcile man to Himself.
Which means that his post was not just a quote, the post was a specific interpretation which he has previously given for that passage. I don't disagree with the Psalms, I disagree with his interpretation of that Psalms.
 

JudgeRightly

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No you didn't.

Are you A) calling me a liar, in that you're saying that I did not quote the Bible? or B) asserting that Psalm 49:7-9, which I quoted, verbatim, is not part of the Bible? or perhaps both A and B?

The passage you quoted

Oh, so I was quoting it? Imagine that...

involves buying one's way out of death with gold

I see no gold in the passage, or the chapter either, for that matter.

Who's the one interpreting the passage again?

and has nothing to do with Jesus having to be God to redeem everyone. (see verse 15) That idea starts with Anselm.

Just realized I forgot this verse:

But God will redeem my soul from the power of the grave, For He shall receive me. Selah - Psalm 49:15 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm49:15&version=NKJV

His quote was a response to

My quote was me saying that this:

Yes, only God is qualified to reconcile man to Himself.

Reminded me of a certain passage, namely Psalm 49:7-9 (and additionally verse 15).

Which means that his post was not just a quote,

Did I or did I not quote directly from the Bible, the passage found at Psalms
49:7-9?

the post was a specific interpretation

In what way is being reminded of a passage "a specific interpretation"?

which he has previously given for that passage. I don't disagree with the Psalms, I disagree with his interpretation of that Psalms.

I provided no interpretation.

I merely stated that this:

Yes, only God is qualified to reconcile man to Himself.

Reminded me of this:

None of them can by any means redeem his brother, Nor give to God a ransom for him—For the redemption of their souls is costly, And it shall cease forever—That he should continue to live eternally, And not see the Pit. - Psalm 49:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm49:7-9&version=NKJV

And also this:

But God will redeem my soul from the power of the grave, For He shall receive me. Selah - Psalm 49:15 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm49:15&version=NKJV
 

Hilltrot

Well-known member
I provided no interpretation.

I will get to your other posts soon, but I wanted to address this first:

Psalm 49 excludes ANYONE who is not God from being able to redeem man from His sins.

None of them can by any means redeem his brother, Nor give to God a ransom for him—For the redemption of their souls is costly, And it shall cease forever—That he should continue to live eternally, And not see the Pit. - Psalm 49:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm49:7-9&version=NKJV

You claim that Jesus is human, a created being. That means that his life has nowhere near enough value to redeem ONE man's soul, let alone that of all of mankind. Only God is valuable enough to pay the cost of redeeming the souls of all men, not just His, Jesus', own.

Only God alone could be the payment.
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
God is Love, Love forgets sin which is deliberate disloyalty to deity.

You are splitting hairs with some kind of technicality based argument which ignores the context of forgiveness.

Splitting hairs you say.

If God forgets then He is not all knowing.

So either God is not all knowing or He is all knowing.
 

oatmeal

Well-known member

He quoted 1 John 4:2. If you lack Bible knowledge, Google is your friend.

My concern is not the quoted scripture, that quote is plenty familiar to me.

My concern is his statement which is not a quote of scripture, but actually ignores what the scripture he refers to states

I'm only saying to you, what Jesus says to you. Unless you believe that He is God in the flesh, you will die in your sins.

I John 4:2 says nothing about God coming in the flesh, is speaks of Jesus Christ is come in the flesh

Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
 
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