Where is that quote written in the scripture as you wrote it? ("IN THE NAME of GOD")? "God" by itself is not generally a name and that is likely why those passages do not say what you say they say, (Mt 21:9, 23:39, Mk 11:9, Lk 13:35, 19:38, Jn 12:13).
If indeed you can use the scripture in the literal wooden way that you do, as being full of "proof texts" for you to hammer other people with, then you cannot be correct and have nullified your own argument because the very same thing is stated by the same author, using the same exact word for "good" concerning Barnabas. Therefore according to your assertion and your example of proof texting "Barnabas is God" because Barnabas was a good man; and if Barnabas was a good man then he must also have been a God-Man according to your own assertion:
Luke 18:19 KJV
19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, [αγαθος] save one, that is, God.
Luke 18:19 Textus Receptus, (KJV)
19 ειπε δε αυτω ο ιησους τι με λεγεις αγαθον; ουδεις αγαθος ει μη εις ο θεος
Lo and behold from the same author:
Acts 11:22-25 KJV
22 Then tidings of these things came unto the ears of the church which was in Jerusalem: and they sent forth Barnabas, that he should go as far as Antioch.
23 Who, when he came, and had seen the grace of God, was glad, and exhorted them all, that with purpose of heart they would cleave unto the Lord.
24 For he was a good man, [ανηρ αγαθος] and full of the Holy Ghost and of faith: and much people was added unto the Lord.
25 Then departed Barnabas to Tarsus, for to seek Saul:
Acts 11:24 Textus Receptus
24 οτι ην ανηρ αγαθος και πληρης πνευματος αγιου και πιστεως και προσετεθη οχλος ικανος τω κυριω
How do you explain this in your doctrine? It clearly says that Barnabas was a good man, (ανηρ αγαθος), the same agathos which the same author employs in Luke 18:19 to quote the Master saying that there is none agathos-good, save one, God. So how can you even be sure that what you have in the Luke passage is rendered correctly? What if it literally says "IF-NOT", (ει μη), instead of "except" or "save" as the KJV renders that portion? It does indeed literally mean "if not" but what would that mean in the context of Luke 18:19? Could it mean "none is good, if not one of God's" (people)? or maybe "if not one with God"? Or is it rather that you are now willing to stick to your guns and confess that Barnabas must also be a God-Man according to your stiffnecked stances and arguments? It appears from where I stand that there must be something flawed with your argument because none of us believes that Barnabas was God or a God-Man. If you want to understand you must be willing to question everything you read in your English translations and dig down to the source texts. However you just accused me yet again of be a continual "scripture corrector" in one of my threads; so I suppose you will stay in your pit of confusion, allowing other men to tell you what to believe by way of their translations. You do not even realize you are slave to those men whose translations you depend on. It is not possible to render Greek or Hebrew into any other language without being forced to make interpretations; it simply cannot be done, and if you say that one of the English translations is "inspired English" then you pretty much need to default to the KJV because it became the most widespread first and foremost. However the KJV just fouled you up in your own argument, (and that is nothing compared to what else it will do to you elsewhere, if not already, lol).
Jesus is God. Why resist ALL scripture and the very Holy Spirit of Christ. (Romans 8:9)
If you think the "Word" is the Torah... your under a bad spell.
- Happy Ressurection of God celebration.