ECT Adam and death

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
IMO, I fear the notion that Adam sinned out of love for Eve, will lead to an eventual denial of Romans 5:12; of Federalism; of the doctrines of Original Sin and Divine Imputation of Sin; Spiritual Death, and Total Depravity, etc. etc.

Without addressing at length, the Augustinian-derived variants of this multi-point area of doctrine have issues relative to what I'd best describe as sequence; and it leads to many falsities in the attempt to address sin onset and its assignment of "blame".

Sin is hamartia, from ameros ("a" and "meros; "no" and "share or part".). The missing share or part isn't really a "something", but a "somethinglessness". There's almost universal misunderstanding of what sin is in all the grammatical forms and their source.

What's missing as the share or part (hamartia) is that the foundation for the ultimate inward conduct of the heart and any resulting outward conduct as actions are according to another standard that is not God's dikeosune (righteousness); that being from hearing another rhema for another faith that hypostatically changes both the prosopon and the physis of the ousia (the prosopon "having the hypostasis, while the hypostasis underlies the ousia/physis and determines its qualitative existence).

Sin is the inner and outer conduct that the codified distribution of God's standard of righteousness (law) imputes as the condition of the sinner. The source of all conduct is hearing rhema to have logos as thought and expression for all action. The very foundation FOR sin is false rhema by a flase logos (from the father of lies). This source is communal.

Someone in an inherent place of communion through spiritual life could not sin. Spiritual death must preceed even temptation for sin onset as "the missing share or part". No one in spiritual communion could "miss the mark" without the communion being abrogated first. But it means understanding thanatos (death) functionally as "cessation of communion with environment of origin" (body from dust, spirit from God's Breath/Spirit).

The inevitable result of spiritual cessation of communion is sin as another standard of righteousness in conduct from hearing whatever rhema replaces God's. Romans 5 is not in any jeopardy whatsover of Pelagianistic application for all have sinned, but there's no sin imputed where there is no law. The law requires competency of volitional sentience for imputation OR repentance out of faith. (The unborn and incompetent children aren't to burn in the lake of fire.)

We're conceived in spiritual death, unable to EVER commune with God in our inwardly-functional human spirit that MUST be resurrected from within. Its faculties are still intact and it provides us the physical/soulical breath of life, but it isn't conjoined to the Holy Spirit unless we're born again.

Man can thus never initiate or effect his own salvation; but we're not conceived in sin. Each living human is accountable for his own spiritual death and sin. In Adam all DIED, not all sinned. Death passed upon all men, not sin. The sting of death is sin, not vice versa.

This script-flip is from Augustine's misreading in ignorance of Psalm 51:5 and assembling other alleged proof-texts, not knowing the para-biblical historical truth of David's parents Jesse and Nitzevet. Nitzevet was verbally put away by Jesse while remaining in the household, snd it was because of his confused piety regarding Boaz and Ruth.

With Jesse arranging to do an Abraham and Hagar, the intended handmaiden knew Nitzevet's pain and strong faith. Nitzevet quietly took the handmaiden's place in Jesse's chambers, and she conceived David while being presumed and adultress.

She spent David's early life in the silence of faith, with the wrongful stigma of an adultress as David was considered a bastard. This is the reason for the timbre of many of David's pslams; and why he was assigned the dirty job of tending the sheep, and wasn't initally present at Samuel's visit to annoint the new king.

Building a doctrine of original sin (which originated in the heavenly rebellion) based on a solo hermeneuticslly misinterpreted passage with no other direct references is as fallacious as Augustine's own tortured lust being the impetus fro finding a way to find federal blame for his own sowing and reaping. And now it's so engrained, nobody dares challenge the doctrine for fear of being labeled a Semi-/Full Pelagian.

Everything else you named follows the same pattern of misunderstanding and misrepresentation, and leads to endless binaries of false partial rhema on either side of the truth. In this manner, most dichotomies of doctrine are some measure of sin themselves. That should be sobering, and the only answer is reconciliation rather than migrating to one side (and without relativism, pluralism, or subjectivism).

Adam rebelled and disobyed God's Law and Commands. He exhibited no love toward Eve nor faith in God, by his actions. The horror of Adam's crime, is that it affected his wife with death, instead of protecting her as he should have, by heeding God's warnings, and so correcting her.

How would he ever sin in perfect communion without that communion first being abrogated as spiritual death by diverting communion to hear another rhema for a false faith that altered their very underlying substantial reality of existence (hypostasis), along with their nature and their (now-naked) prosopon?

Spiritual death > Sin > Physical death

And Adam brought death to all their seed.

Right. Not sin. Because of conception in spiritual death, each human sins; the wages for which is physical death. Jesus spiritually died on the cross while He yet physically lived. He ceased spiritual communion and cried out. He spiritually died as He was made the quality of sin for us, then He laid down His physical life in consummation of our entire redemption.

That is not sacrificial love. That is ungodly sin.

The two Adam's are not to be compared, but to be contrasted. . .

The first is most definitely a type for the latter as the anti-type.

Adam could not have sinned in spiritual communion of life by the Holy Spirit, else we have an Arminian or Pelagian will involved that is greater than God's own. But all the intimate and intricate exegetical details of Theology Proper and Cosmogony, etc. have to be in place to recognize it all. That begins with distinguishing eternity and created sempiternity, and the latter's initial tangibility from temporality's tangibility.

Without knowing God's Rhema IS His (singular) transcendent hypostasis and the distinctions between phenomenological, noumenological, reo-phenomenal, and nouo-phenomenal existence none of it can ever be put together without the layers of paradoxical false mystery of alleged Orthodoxy in these areas.

The Patristics missed ONE thing, and there's an attendant mini-cascade of necessary reconciliation to correct it AND reconcile everything else then and since. Everything. There's nothing new under the sun.

It begins with Rhema and knowing that God LOOKS like three hypostases in sempiternity, but the economy of the created sempiternity has never been accounted for, though assumed and declared by all (including the anathemas). They all began post-procession and post-creation to account for procession and creation.
 
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Timotheos

New member
Yes! Can there be a greater destruction for the eternal soul of man than hell itself, destruction that never ends? The fact that the spirit of man, upon his death, returns to God "Who gave it" and the body decays, does not mean the "God breathed creation", "eternal" substance of the soul, can ever die. According to common understanding the soul is our personality and inasmuch as God has a Soul that cannot die, man's soul, "being God breathed", cannot die. In that understanding lies the truth of us being "gods" insofar as God has made us in His image, independent of Himself but wants surrendered to Him, Adam being the first test. Hence, we can see that the soul which does not surrender himself to God, dies. There is no life as God has purposed for man to come into, outside Himself. He is "The Way, The Truth, AND THE LIFE".




If you have understood what I was trying to say above then you can see to understand what both Jesus and Eze. were saying.



WHY! God was, is, and ever will be, ETERNAL LOVE! Only LOVE can create!
I seriously doubt anyone can imagine what the experience must be like for the one who is placed into an existence of the extreme absolute separation of His LOVE. Do you believe mere physical death and decay would be worse???

Haven't you ever read the account of the "Rich man and Lazarus"? Luke 16:22-31 KJV.


I have read the parable of the rich man and Lazarus, and it does not say that death is separation.
The Bible does not say that death is eternal separation. It is not a question of "What is the worst possible thing we can possibly imagine?" It is a question of "What does the Bible actually say?"

Nothing you posted proves that death is not death but eternal life being separated from God. Not being destroyed is actually not destruction at all. Eternal nondestruction in hell is not destruction.

Jesus Christ told us to fear the one who can destroy the soul, therefore the soul can be destroyed. I stand on His words.
 
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Tambora

Get your armor ready!
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Adam saw this and out of love Adam became a sinner with her.
I see that love as a typology of what Christ did.

Christ, who was never deceived by temptation, loved His sinful bride so much that he purposely took the same sin that his wife has upon Himself.

If Adam had not done so, he would have been forever separated from her. And there would have been no hope for Eve.
Just as Christ would have been forever separated from his love if He had not done so. And there would have been no hope for her.
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
Without addressing at length, the Augustinian-derived variants of this multi-point area of doctrine have issues relative to what I'd best describe as sequence; and it leads to many falsities in the attempt to address sin onset and its assignment of "blame".

Sin is hamartia, from ameros ("a" and "meros; "no" and "share or part".). The missing share or part isn't really a "something", but a "somethinglessness". There's almost universal misunderstanding of what sin is in all the grammatical forms and their source.

What's missing as the share or part (hamartia) is that the foundation for the ultimate inward conduct of the heart and any resulting outward conduct as actions are according to another standard that is not God's dikeosune (righteousness); that being from hearing another rhema for another faith that hypostatically changes both the prosopon and the physis of the ousia (the prosopon "having the hypostasis, while the hypostasis underlies the ousia/physis and determines its qualitative existence).

Sin is the inner and outer conduct that the codified distribution of God's standard of righteousness (law) imputes as the condition of the sinner. The source of all conduct is hearing rhema to have logos as thought and expression for all action. The very foundation FOR sin is false rhema by a flase logos (from the father of lies). This source is communal.

Someone in an inherent place of communion through spiritual life could not sin. Spiritual death must preceed even temptation for sin onset as "the missing share or part". No one in spiritual communion could "miss the mark" without the communion being abrogated first. But it means understanding thanatos (death) functionally as "cessation of communion with environment of origin" (body from dust, spirit from God's Breath/Spirit).

The inevitable result of spiritual cessation of communion is sin as another standard of righteousness in conduct from hearing whatever rhema replaces God's. Romans 5 is not in any jeopardy whatsover of Pelagianistic application for all have sinned, but there's no sin imputed where there is no law. The law requires competency of volitional sentience for imputation OR repentance out of faith. (The unborn and incompetent children aren't to burn in the lake of fire.)

We're conceived in spiritual death, unable to EVER commune with God in our inwardly-functional human spirit that MUST be resurrected from within. Its faculties are still intact and it provides us the physical/soulical breath of life, but it isn't conjoined to the Holy Spirit unless we're born again.

Man can thus never initiate or effect his own salvation; but we're not conceived in sin. Each living human is accountable for his own spiritual death and sin. In Adam all DIED, not all sinned. Death passed upon all men, not sin. The sting of death is sin, not vice versa.

This script-flip is from Augustine's misreading in ignorance of Psalm 51:5 and assembling other alleged proof-texts, not knowing the para-biblical historical truth of David's parents Jesse and Nitzevet. Nitzevet was verbally put away by Jesse while remaining in the household, snd it was because of his confused piety regarding Boaz and Ruth.

With Jesse arranging to do an Abraham and Hagar, the intended handmaiden knew Nitzevet's pain and strong faith. Nitzevet quietly took the handmaiden's place in Jesse's chambers, and she conceived David while being presumed and adultress.

She spent David's early life in the silence of faith, with the wrongful stigma of an adultress as David was considered a bastard. This is the reason for the timbre of many of David's pslams; and why he was assigned the dirty job of tending the sheep, and wasn't initally present at Samuel's visit to annoint the new king.

Building a doctrine of original sin (which originated in the heavenly rebellion) based on a solo hermeneuticslly misinterpreted passage with no other direct references is as fallacious as Augustine's own tortured lust being the impetus fro finding a way to find federal blame for his own sowing and reaping. And now it's so engrained, nobody dares challenge the doctrine for fear of being labeled a Semi-/Full Pelagian.

Everything else you named follows the same pattern of misunderstanding and misrepresentation, and leads to endless binaries of false partial rhema on either side of the truth. In this manner, most dichotomies of doctrine are some measure of sin themselves. That should be sobering, and the only answer is reconciliation rather than migrating to one side (and without relativism, pluralism, or subjectivism).



How would he ever sin in perfect communion without that communion first being abrogated as spiritual death by diverting communion to hear another rhema for a false faith that altered their very underlying substantial reality of existence (hypostasis), along with their nature and their (now-naked) prosopon?

Spiritual death > Sin > Physical death



Right. Not sin. Because of conception in spiritual death, each human sins; the wages for which is physical death. Jesus spiritually died on the cross while He yet physically lived. He ceased spiritual communion and cried out. He spiritually died as He was made the quality of sin for us, then He laid down His physical life in consummation of our entire redemption.



The first is most definitely a type for the latter as the anti-type.

Adam could not have sinned in spiritual communion of life by the Holy Spirit, else we have an Arminian or Pelagian will involved that is greater than God's own. But all the intimate and intricate exegetical details of Theology Proper and Cosmogony, etc. have to be in place to recognize it all. That begins with distinguishing eternity and created sempiternity, and the latter's initial tangibility from temporality's tangibility.

Without knowing God's Rhema IS His (singular) transcendent hypostasis and the distinctions between phenomenological, noumenological, reo-phenomenal, and nouo-phenomenal existence none of it can ever be put together without the layers of paradoxical false mystery of alleged Orthodoxy in these areas.

The Patristics missed ONE thing, and there's an attendant mini-cascade of necessary reconciliation to correct it AND reconcile everything else then and since. Everything. There's nothing new under the sun.

It begins with Rhema and knowing that God LOOKS like three hypostases in sempiternity, but the economy of the created sempiternity has never been accounted for, though assumed and declared by all (including the anathemas). They all began post-procession and post-creation to account for procession and creation.

With all due respect, my friend, you have responded with negative denials of all the orthodox doctrines I partially listed, and feared would be demeaned, without any positive apologetic for your theoretical premise that Adam sinned out of a sacrificial love for his confused wife.

Just yesterday, I was quite harshly insulted, rebuked, and discouraged about posting my theological beliefs, because I am a female and supposedly thus acting out of order thereby causing offense to Christian men, so although I possess keen and strong biblical arguments against each of the points you present, I will recuse myself and will only necessarily answer you privately, if one of the better equipped, male, Christian saints does not take issue and counter your views.

May God bless all His elect children, with wisdom and light, as these subject arise!

Nang
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
I see that love as a typology of what Christ did.

Christ, who was never deceived by temptation, loved His sinful bride so much that he purposely took the same sin that his wife has upon Himself.

If Adam had not done so, he would have been forever separated from her. And there would have been no hope for Eve.
Just as Christ would have been forever separated from his love if He had not done so. And there would have been no hope for her.

The analogy becomes wicked when you look at the result of the first Adam's actions, which was his wife's DEATH!

Christ's sacrificial love worked His wife's LIFE!

This theory is premised on post-fall reality; not the conditions of Adam and Eve, who walked with God as innocents, in the beginning.

One cannot compare the sinful works of Adam pre-fall with the gracious and saving acts of the last Adam post-fall.

They can only be contrasted; not analogized, blended, nor made into a "kind of gospel of sorts."

To do so, is to lose the gospel message altogether . . .
 
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Nang

TOL Subscriber
The only "type" the first Adam revealed about the last Adam, Jesus Christ . . . was that of his being the Federal Head and representative of all his seed (mankind) as Jesus Incarnated as Federal Head and Representative (Mediator) of all His spiritual seed (church).

Period.
 

Tambora

Get your armor ready!
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
The analogy becomes wicked

blah
blah
blah
Then you don't understand typology.

There wasn't one single sinless person in history, and yet many are a typology of Christ who was sinless.
 

False Prophet

New member
I see that love as a typology of what Christ did.

Christ, who was never deceived by temptation, loved His sinful bride so much that he purposely took the same sin that his wife has upon Himself.

If Adam had not done so, he would have been forever separated from her. And there would have been no hope for Eve.
Just as Christ would have been forever separated from his love if He had not done so. And there would have been no hope for her.

James said that we are enticed by sin, then we can succomb if we give in.
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
Why the assumption Adam needed an experiential reference? He was created an adult. He neither needed to learn to speak, like a baby needs to learn. That is, the same argument could be used as to how Adam could have been already a cognizant being in any way, to start naming animals, for instance. Also, God would not have given Adam an instruction he had no understanding of, just as you wouldn't expect it useful to start teaching your newborn baby integral Calculus, a silly notion. Adam was created with an already developed consciousness, therefore no such ensuing mysteries, if we grasp this primal truth.

A fair point - and one that I think implies either a realm of existence we can't (directly) relate to - or an inevitability that any parent certainly can relate to. Tell a child "No" and eventually curiosity gets the better of them some time....
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
With all due respect, my friend, you have responded with negative denials of all the orthodox doctrines I partially listed, and feared would be demeaned, without any positive apologetic for your theoretical premise that Adam sinned out of a sacrificial love for his confused wife.

Just yesterday, I was quite harshly insulted, rebuked, and discouraged about posting my theological beliefs, because I am a female and supposedly thus acting out of order thereby causing offense to Christian men, so although I possess keen and strong biblical arguments against each of the points you present, I will recuse myself and will only necessarily answer you privately, if one of the better equipped, male, Christian saints does not take issue and counter your views.

May God bless all His elect children, with wisdom and light, as these subject arise!

Nang

I'm not denying or demeaning. I've spent 17 years reconciling. All the binaries of doctrine are false dichotomies of limited perspective without knowing the underlying foundational truths that have resulting from subtle error into such.

I can wholly reconcile Calvinism and Arminianism (along with Open Theism and Process Theology). Neither/none suffice, and are subtly misrepresentational of many truths.

Understanding Theology Proper and Cosmogony are the key; and all relative to the created sempiternity by recognizing all aspects of phenomenological existence.

Historical Christianity has been an endless 2D attempt to represent 3D truth by combining eternity and sempiternity while presuming tangible temporality to be the initial created cosmos by God from heaven. The processions of the eternal Logos and Pneuma are not internal and ontological, but are external and economic FROM inherent ontology when/as creation is instantiated into existence.

The truth reconciles every form of Sophistry, Esotericism and Gnosticism, and without a shred of Synchretism or Relativism but the opposite.

Augustine's variant of Original Sin is actually functionally impossible and invites the dichotomy of some degree of Pelagianism; just as his Filioque clause makes a gateway to infinite Polytheism in its failed attempt to demonstrate alleged equality for a non-individuated hypostasis that is qualitatively distinct rather than quantitatively such (and this has no individuated prosopon, for good reason relative to our redemption, etc.).

This isn't demeaning or denying any of the valiant attempts of the great men of God. It's the ministry of reconciliation that few have embraced throughout history while fighting to be right instead of wholly fighting for absolute 100-fold truth.

And it all begins with God's Rhema. It must, for there is nothing (no thing) else with inherent phenomenology of existence. Without that foundational underlying substantial objective reality for existence and subsistence (hyppstasis), there is no creation.

It's time to Reform the Catholic foundations that injected an omission and its paradoxical results with endless dichotomies that are gradients of false rhema/logos throughout the Bride. Sin.
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
The analogy becomes wicked when you look at the result of the first Adam's actions, which was his wife's DEATH!

Christ's sacrificial love worked His wife's LIFE!

This theory is premised on post-fall reality; not the conditions of Adam and Eve, who walked with God as innocents, in the beginning.

One cannot compare the sinful works of Adam pre-fall with the gracious and saving acts of the last Adam post-fall.

They can only be contrasted; not analogized, blended, nor made into a "kind of gospel of sorts."

To do so, is to lose the gospel message altogether . . .

From the bolded above, what would be "pre-fall sinful works"?

And Eve conversed with snake-breath and ate before giving to Adam to eat. She was already in spiritual death and sin.

Adam willfully sinned, attempting to embrace the rhema of the serpent yet not being in the transgression because he knew it wasn't God's Rhema.

There can be no hamartia with spiritual communion of life intact. Augustine was grossly in error in his desperate attempts to explain his own youthful lust (possibly affected in some over-reactive manner by his recanted decade-long early Manichaean foray into Gnosticism).

It only takes a little leaven and the lump has been well-leavened.
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
Without addressing at length, the Augustinian-derived variants of this multi-point area of doctrine have issues relative to what I'd best describe as sequence; and it leads to many falsities in the attempt to address sin onset and its assignment of "blame".

Sin is hamartia, from ameros ("a" and "meros; "no" and "share or part".). The missing share or part isn't really a "something", but a "somethinglessness". There's almost universal misunderstanding of what sin is in all the grammatical forms and their source.

What's missing as the share or part (hamartia) is that the foundation for the ultimate inward conduct of the heart and any resulting outward conduct as actions are according to another standard that is not God's dikeosune (righteousness); that being from hearing another rhema for another faith that hypostatically changes both the prosopon and the physis of the ousia (the prosopon "having the hypostasis, while the hypostasis underlies the ousia/physis and determines its qualitative existence).

Sin is the inner and outer conduct that the codified distribution of God's standard of righteousness (law) imputes as the condition of the sinner. The source of all conduct is hearing rhema to have logos as thought and expression for all action. The very foundation FOR sin is false rhema by a flase logos (from the father of lies). This source is communal.

Someone in an inherent place of communion through spiritual life could not sin. Spiritual death must preceed even temptation for sin onset as "the missing share or part". No one in spiritual communion could "miss the mark" without the communion being abrogated first. But it means understanding thanatos (death) functionally as "cessation of communion with environment of origin" (body from dust, spirit from God's Breath/Spirit).

I'm afraid I don't have the philosophical background to follow most of what you say here, but one thought comes to mind. Your statement that there is no way sin could have entered in without first there being a loss of communion - it seems problematic to my mind. Admittedly, I probably haven't given it near as much thought as you clearly have, but if the communion with God had been forfeited before the fruit had been tasted (i.e. as soon as Eve gave Satan an audience), then wouldn't that mean they would have become self-aware (not having that fellowship with God anymore) immediately? Genesis 2:25 seems to imply that Adam and Eve were unashamed because of the union they shared with each other AND with the Creator. That is, there was little or no independent self-awareness. That being the case, shouldn't they have been ashamed sooner? Shouldn't their self-awareness have come once they lost fellowship with God (which would be Genesis 3:2 in your understanding - if I am reading you correctly)?

If not, where does that line of thought fail?
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
From the bolded above, what would be "pre-fall sinful works"?

Sorry . . what I meant to convey was Adam's sin which he committed within his pre-fall condition and first estate of being . . . which was innocence.

And Eve conversed with snake-breath and ate before giving to Adam to eat. She was already in spiritual death and sin.

But Adam was held accountable and responsible. Romans 5:12

Adam willfully sinned, attempting to embrace the rhema of the serpent yet not being in the transgression because he knew it wasn't God's Rhema.

So why did he try to "embrace" Satan's lie, except Adam wanted to be "like God?"

There can be no hamartia with spiritual communion of life intact.

Adam was created and held accountable under the Covenant of Works, which made his existing creational communion with God conditional according to obeisance to the revealed commands given to Adam prior to his breach of said covenant.

Augustine was grossly in error in his desperate attempts to explain his own youthful lust (possibly affected in some over-reactive manner by his recanted decade-long early Manichaean foray into Gnosticism).

Have you read all of Augustine?

But here I am, a woman responding to you, who will catch hell from others for doing so . . . so again, I attempt to bow out.

Your friend, even in disagreement . . .

Nang
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I'm afraid I don't have the philosophical background to follow most of what you say here, but one thought comes to mind. Your statement that there is no way sin could have entered in without first there being a loss of communion - it seems problematic to my mind. Admittedly, I probably haven't given it near as much thought as you clearly have, but if the communion with God had been forfeited before the fruit had been tasted (i.e. as soon as Eve gave Satan an audience), then wouldn't that mean they would have become self-aware (not having that fellowship with God anymore) immediately? Genesis 2:25 seems to imply that Adam and Eve were unashamed because of the union they shared with each other AND with the Creator. That is, there was little or no independent self-awareness. That being the case, shouldn't they have been ashamed sooner? Shouldn't their self-awareness have come once they lost fellowship with God (which would be Genesis 3:2 in your understanding - if I am reading you correctly)?

If not, where does that line of thought fail?

The act as sin brought imputation by the law (do not eat), which was God's simple distribution of His righteousness as the standard for conduct.

This was preceeded by spiritual death when communion was diverted by hearing the serpent's rhema, and thus abrogated.

The act consummated the spiritual death when it was imputed by the law judging the act (and thus the heart).
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
The act as sin brought imputation by the law (do not eat), which was God's simple distribution of His righteousness as the standard for conduct.

This was preceeded by spiritual death when communion was diverted by hearing the serpent's rhema, and thus abrogated.

The act consummated the spiritual death when it was imputed by the law judging the act (and thus the heart).

This makes sense, but why wouldn't Adam and Eve become self aware before eating the fruit? Or is it your position that they did?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Sorry . . what I meant to convey was Adam's sin which he committed within his pre-fall condition and first estate of being . . . which was innocence.

Okay. :)

But Adam was held accountable and responsible. Romans 5:12

Of course. He is the head of woman and willfully sinned. Eve, though in the transgression, was deceived (and possibly because Adam informed her).

So why did he try to "embrace" Satan's lie, except Adam wanted to be "like God?"

When he saw and heard Eve, he willfully communed with the lie; not unaware that it was a lie. In so doing, He took on a Messiah Complex functionality of the pride of life to accompany the lust or the flesh and eyes that he heard from His co-flesh. He was persuaded by her, not Satan; an inverse of her sloppily hearing and hearkening to God's Rhema through him.

Adam was created and held accountable under the Covenant of Works, which made his existing creational communion with God conditional according to obeisance to the revealed commands given to Adam prior to his breach of said covenant.

And that obeisance could only be by communal intimacy. He couldn't just arbitrarily decide by "free" will. Spiritual death came when he communed with the false rhema through/with his wife and then succumbed to temptation without deception.

Have you read all of Augustine?

As far as I'm aware. I don't despise him, but he readily confounded the alleged hypostases in his treatment of the Filioque fallacy. I'm not a fan.

But here I am, a woman responding to you, who will catch hell from others for doing so . . . so again, I attempt to bow out.

I know that's a balance; but we're friends in discussion, not you attempting to teach me as a superior. I can be sharpened by your iron.

Others are... Others. I dunno what to tell you there.

Your friend, even in disagreement . . .

Nang

Graciously reciprocated. :) I never expected you to like any of this area of doctrine. It's still all about God's Rhema. Be it unto me according to His Rhema.
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
This makes sense, but why wouldn't Adam and Eve become self aware before eating the fruit? Or is it your position that they did?

This was the inversion of their souls being in ascendency by their spirits dying (ceasing communion with environment of origin) and being "buried" within them subject to the soul (and the Holy Spirit lifting from them).

The self-awareness was always present, but subjugated in obedience to the preeminence of vertical divine didactic communion. The inversion occurred as Eve (according to horizontal non-divine dialectic communion/communication) briefly pondered the temptation, fully consummated by the physical act and taking the object OF sin into her members.

It was similar and immediately subsequent for Adam, but willful rather than by being deceived.
 

Truster

New member
To better understand what happened or rather why what happened to Adam and Eve its worth reading the first few chapters of Job. In particular Job 1:6-10 KJV
 
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