ECT Why Won't MAD Folks Address 2 Peter 3:15?

[Jerry Shugart]

1 Peter 1:18 makes it clear that Peter was writing to gentiles whose forefathers had passed down an “empty way of life.”

From what we read here it is obvious that Peter did not address his epistle to any Gentiles:

"For the time already past is sufficient for you to have carried out the desire of the Gentiles, having pursued a course of sensuality, lusts, drunkenness, carousing, drinking parties and abominable idolatries" (1 Pet.4:3).​

Here Peter is CONTRASTING those who received his epistle to the Gentiles. That would make no sense if his epistle was addressed to both Jews and Gentiles.

 

[musterion]

From what we read here it is obvious that Peter did not address his epistle to any Gentiles:

"For the time already past is sufficient for you to have carried out the desire of the Gentiles, having pursued a course of sensuality, lusts, drunkenness, carousing, drinking parties and abominable idolatries" (1 Pet.4:3).​

Here Peter is CONTRASTING those who received his epistle to the Gentiles. That would make no sense if his epistle was addressed to both Jews and Gentiles.

Exactly right.