Harrison Ford doesn't call himself "we" and" our" he'd be a schizophrenic if he did!
And when Jesus says "we" and "our" he is referring to himself and the father. Not that he is the father!
Marhig, "we" and "our" would be appropriate as God was in two different forms at that time. In heaven, and on earth. Before you are so hasty as to allege schizophrenia, I would appreciate your considering of a similar instance below:
2 Corinthians 12:1-5 KJV
(1)
It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.
(2)
I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth

such an one caught up to the third heaven.
(3)
And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth

(4) How that
he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
(5)
Of such an one will I glory: yet of myself I will not glory, but in mine infirmities.
In this passage Paul is speaking of himself as two different persons. There is "myself" and "I" as one person, and "such a man" and "he" as another. He even says he would glory that man, but not himself. And this instance is quite a bit less complicated than God manifest in the flesh.
1 Timothy 3:16 KJV
(16) And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
John 1:10-11 KJV
(10)
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
(11) He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
I think I've explained why arguments of persons or pronouns cannot be decisive on this question. Even in mundane cases (such as Paul) we find occasion to apply (possibly confusing) language depending on the circumstance. If we believe the scripture, God was manifest in the flesh, he created the world and he came into that world. He is the Rock and the first and the last besides which there is no God.
From what I've seen so far, most (if not all) of your objections are based on arguments of pronouns and persons, questions easily answered with an understanding that Jesus was being purposely vague while he was on the earth. He spoke in parable, not so that they would understand, but specifically so that they would not understand.
What i have not heard you address is when Jesus speaks clearly and directly for purposes of identification, even when Paul and John do make direct statements. Regardless of any other arguments that may exist, I believe that this is the factor that ends all debate. Your other argument(s) are non-conclusive, and as such they cannot outweigh direct statements.
Can you explain why John writes as he does in his first chapter if Jesus were anyone else but our Creator? Or why Jesus would explain his power over the demons that "he beheld Satan fall from heaven like lightning" or why he would call himself
the first and the last, the beginning and the end? Is there some moral reason why you would not have Jesus as your Lord and God but would insist on someone else? Please, move away from the non-conclusive argument and let's move to the areas where I haven't heard from you yet.
I'm not up for the personal attack route, but I would like to fairly exchange questions and answers. Thanks.