Seriously? As in disbelief at that question, seriously?
You out of all people are in disbelief!? Need I remind you that you deny that Jesus in Rev 1:5 is separate from the "one coming" in Rev 1:4 even though it plainly states it!? Yet you struggle on this word order???
You fail to understand why I said what I said, Genesis 48:15, 16:
Then he [Jacob] blessed Joseph and said:
The true God before whom my fathers Abraham and Isaac walked,
The true God who has been shepherding me during all my life until this day
The angel who has been recovering me from all calamity,
bless the boys
Nothing in the above states that "the angel" was the "true God", there is no reason why "the Angel" according to the grammar or context cannot be separate from the "true God", it can simply be referring to the "true God" and an "angel". I do not deny that it can be read that the "angel" was the true God, but as already stated this is not the only interpretation nor the most plausible.
If however the true God was the Angel who appeared to the persons we've already cited, then it would contradict John 1:18, God cannot literally be the angels spoken of if one wants the Bible to remain consistent.
"No man has seen God at any time"(John 1:18).
No, it does not. DIAGRAM THE SENTENCE. Where is the verb part of that sentence? It's "bless" as in "bless the lads." Who is doing the blessing?
To answer your question from my opopion, God and an angel. I don't think I get your point, the verse could have mentioned a hundred separate people it still would've been "bless the boys".
Or are you going to go off in a wannabe-Trinitarian-way on me and say that Jacob is praying to three DIFFERENT persons? God, God the 2nd, and a random created angel?
Jacob had already wrestled with the angel who's name he asked at this point in Gen 48, he knew that this angel, by means of God, had been looking after, blessing and been recovering Jacob from calamity, therefore Jacob asked that the true God, and this protective angel bless his Sons.
Jacob himself was invoking the blessing as stated in the verse and asked that God and the angel bless his sons.
There is one subject, clarified in three different ways. There is only one Verb. This necessitates equivalence.
No, the scripture allows for two, you can force it to one subject if you want but that doesn't change the fact that the verse allows for two.
Besides this, theologically, does a mere created angel have the power to bless? Should Jacob be praying to created angels, or the Father of Spirits?
I don't know where people like you get these scriptural idea's, where in the Bible does it state only God can bless, this is a common misconception that has no scriptural backing.
You ask me who can bless someone but God, yet, the very scripture we've been discussing states that Jacob blessed Jacob prior to asking God and the Angel to bless his Josephs Sons.
(Genesis 48:15) "..Then he [Jacob] blessed Joseph and said: “The true God before whom my fathers Abraham and Isaac walked, The true God who has been shepherding me during all my life until this day.."
(1 Peter 3:9) "..Do not pay back injury for injury or insult for insult. Instead, repay with a blessing, for you were called to this course, so that you might inherit a blessing.."
(Genesis 12:3) "..I will bless those who bless you, and I will curse him who calls down evil on you, and all the families of the ground will certainly be blessed by means of you..”
I said before that you are relying on fracturing normal sentences, but this is getting ridiculous.
I have not fractured anything, me not agreeing with you is what you're finding difficult.