The new covenant will be with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah. It is FUTURE. Hebrews 8:8 KJV.the new covenant that Jesus made was faith works grace
Mat 26:28 Mat 19:17
Paul was not given "the new covenant".the new dispensation (new house rule) in the new covenant given to Paul
I'm saying there is no "Covenant of Grace". It's not in the Bible. I didn't become a fellowheir, and of the same Body and a partaker of God's promise in Christ by a covenant, but by the gospel!are you saying that Jesus new covenant had no grace?
Ephesians 3:6 KJV That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
Peter preached a murder indictment to ALL the house of Israel. For the scripture saith:to the Jews
Acts 3:16 ...by faith in his name...
Acts 3:19 Repent therefore, and turn back(keep the law), that your sins may be blotted out
Acts 2:36-38 KJV Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. 37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do? 38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Acts 2:41 KJV Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.
They (all the house of Israel-every one of them) were to repent (change their mind) about WHO Jesus Christ was and be identified (water baptized) for the REMISSION of sins, and they would receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. NO MENTION "how that Christ died for our sins".
Is that what the verse says? When would their sins be blotted out?Acts 3:19 Repent therefore, and turn back(keep the law), that your sins may be blotted out
So one needs to believe "in him" and don't work to be saved? What does it mean to believe "in him"?Rom 4:5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
No disciple wanted to what? Those pesky little (per)version books don't say the apostle "of" the Gentiles, do they? They make Paul just another apostle; the apostle "to" the Gentiles.no disciple wanted to
Then why did Bob say Peter was still "applying the old rules to the Gentiles."true
What do you mean, "no"? It was out of order that Peter was being sent to a Gentile. Why else would he hesitate and need to be told three times? Why would he tell Cornelius that it was an unlawful thing for him to keep company with one from another nation Acts 10:28 KJV? If Peter was supposed to be going to Gentiles at the time of acts 10 prior to the vision, why was it unlawful?
on or about pg 47where does the plot imply that ?
So, it wasn't that Peter "momentarily forgot" or "misapplied the law" or was "applying the old rules to the Gentiles" as Bob says making Peter look like a bumbling idiot. I believe the scripture over Bob. Romans 3:4 KJV
Peter had no knowledge of a new dispensation at that time and please show what Peter actually preached to Cornelius from the scriptures.to show peter that there was new dispensation ,gentiles saved apart from the law.
Paul was the first member of the Body of Christ (1 Timothy 1:16 KJV). Paul is our pattern.who did the body of Christ begin with ?
That Peter could not have preached grace to Cornelius, because Peter didn't "perceive the grace" until Acts 15.what is your point?