ECT A Question For Tambora

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Interplanner

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1M1S wrote:
The only grounds for joining with another man is upon the death of her husband or having been divorced for fornication.


A few things are not clear here. 1, between the two genders, Mt 19 is speaking mostly to men. Mk 11 makes it more symmetrical.
2, By using the term 'fornication' you've referenced the situation addressed in OT law--if the spouse learned of sex before marriage there was a ground for divorce. Mt 19 is referring to the problem of the Pharisees using the divorce law to switch partners in a tidy manner and then NOT calling it adultery. Clearly the bottom line is that such legal divorces were adulterous. But you could never say that unless it was already understood that there was the 'usual' kind of adultery.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
1M1S wrote:
If what I said above is not true, then please provide scripture where Moses' bill of divorcement ever said a wife could put away her husband.

This is a good question. The advancement for women in Moses unique divorce law (it is not found in any other ancient near east codes) was that the woman received things owned together; that there was 'community property.'

Mk 10 has addressed the Roman world where women could initiate. That was also found in Hellenistic culture, as I recall.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
The only grounds for joining with another man is upon the death of her husband or having been divorced for fornication.






If what I said above is not true, then please provide scripture where Moses' bill of divorcement ever said a wife could put away her husband.



The wife could leave but without the writing of divorce she could not legally be remarried.






She could leave but the conduct of the man is not the condition that determines her adultery.

The reason a man could put away his wife was for fornication.

That is if he found her to not be a virgin.

If he found her to not be a virgin, she had been raped or had committed fornication before marriage.

There were only two ways a man could commit adultery, that is have sex with a married woman or have sex with a wife who had been put away for something other than fornication.

It is possible for a married man to commit adultery as well as fornication, however it is only possible for a married woman to commit adultery, it is impossible for her to commit fornication.



I don't know why you have given the last paragraph. The Greek terms could easily apply to a married man having an affair with an unmarried woman, and use 'porneia' or 'akatharsia' or others for that.
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
1M1S wrote:
If what I said above is not true, then please provide scripture where Moses' bill of divorcement ever said a wife could put away her husband.

This is a good question. The advancement for women in Moses unique divorce law (it is not found in any other ancient near east codes) was that the woman received things owned together; that there was 'community property.'

Where is the community property written about?



Mk 10 has addressed the Roman world where women could initiate. That was also found in Hellenistic culture, as I recall.

Yes, and it seems that at the time of Jesus, Judea as well as Samaria were not immune to the concept.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Where is the community property written about?





Yes, and it seems that at the time of Jesus, Judea as well as Samaria were not immune to the concept.



I didn't mean the expression 'community property' was used. But the concept in modern use is that a couple's property is owned together, so a settlement must be as close as possible to 50% each. In many degrading cultures, the woman gets little or nothing (property was 'attached' to the man), which was the huge advancement made in the Law when compared to other ANE cultures.

As I understand it, prenup agreements exist to preserve other %s 'going in.' A settlement would then be as close as possible to those percents, by VOLUNTARY agreement before marriage.
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
I don't know why you have given the last paragraph. The Greek terms could easily apply to a married man having an affair with an unmarried woman, and use 'porneia' or 'akatharsia' or others for that.

Are you saying there was no difference between fornication and adultery?
 

musterion

Well-known member
True, and I certainly wouldn't advise it since we do suffer consequences for our behavior in this life. :thumb:

Some are attempting to make this guy suffer consequences for what's proved to be someone else's behavior.

http://www.washingtonexaminer.com/s...ll-not-welcome-at-his-college/article/2581088

On the upside of this story...

In a twist, the accused student is now suing his accuser for $500,000 in damages, alleging the accuser knowingly published false statements on her social media account. She had also circulated the online petition, although she did not create it.
THAT should not be 'a twist.' It is what we need much more of in cases like this.
 

Tambora

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From a 2014 thread

A Poll! I'm 54, She's 27...
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?t=100357

and we're dating
we are Christians
we care deeply for each other
we plan to marry
we plan to build a home
we plan to raise a family


some here seem to feel a great depth of disapproval about it, so i thought i'd throw it out and see what the peanut gallery thinks

how do you feel about the fact that i'm dating a woman who is old enough to be my daughter (granddaughter, actually)?



eta: this is a hypothetical, based on my life situation and my plans for the future


the impetus for this thread was that town and zoo, specifically, have referred to the idea of me in a relationship with a younger woman as "creepy"



do you think that res is guilty of adultery, because he is dating someone while still legally married to someone else?

can you show me where in scripture it says anything about being legally married?

as far as God and i are concerned, i've been divorced since she moved out



she filed for divorce and moved out ten years ago

we put the action in abeyance so i could stay on her health insurance

she has established a separate residence and we have no intention of reconciling

in fact, i plan to finalize soon
 

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
If your marriage is irretrievably over, as it was, then do the right thing by getting a formal divorce and let your ex wife, even though the fault may have been hers, marry again if she wants to.

He isn't keeping her from getting a divorce or remarrying.

it was her idea, actually

we were both in agreement about putting the legal process in abeyance



doser may be a life long student, a career student maybe

true dat :)
 

chrysostom

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
do we really need to know about your personal history?
and
is this the place to discuss it?

I don't think so
and
this should apply to others here
 

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
do we really need to know about your personal history?
and
is this the place to discuss it?

I don't think so
and
this should apply to others here

well, we do tend to get sidetracked :chuckle:

i'd still like to see tam defend her statement in the OP, but i suspect that she never will :idunno:
 

Tambora

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