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The apostles surnamed Barnabas. Jesus surnamed Peter and the sons of thunder, if I remember correctly. Who knows who surnamed Saul (“Paul”). In none of these cases do we transfer the surname to the actual fathers. Why should we presume to do it with Judas’s?

Here's another use of the word "surnamed", also by Luke: Acts 4:36 (KJV) And Joses, who by the apostles was surnamed Barnabas, (which is, being interpreted, The son of consolation,) a Levite, [and] of the country of Cyprus, It probably wasn't a "last name" as we usually think of such. Joses'...

Which is almost as much of a conjecture as mine.

Judas was only called Simon's son three times, that I found--all by John. We know some of the other disciples' father's names, like Zebedee (James and John), or Jonas (Simon Peter and Andrew). But not all. Since Judas had a "last name", his father's name wasn't necessary to distinguish from the...

I'm not for sure about it, but Judas' father's name was Simon, and they were at a Simon's house. John 12:4 (KJV) Then saith one of his disciples, Judas Iscariot, Simon's [son], which should betray him, Mark 14:3 (KJV) And being in Bethany in the house of Simon the leper, as he sat at meat...

That's pretty clear, thanks. I'm not trying to twist anything, I'd just like to make sure our language isn't confusing; see the title of the thread. In a previous post you defined the body's demise in terms of the person going to heaven, which I didn't quite expect. So if Paul talks about...

So you don't even think we die physically, except that we stop breathing?

Did you consider that the dinner that night was being hosted by Judas' father, Simon?

I'm not sure what you mean.

You don't think our flesh will be dead when our bodies are dead?

Meaning it isn't really dead, right?

What do you all think about this verse, in light of the thread topic: Romans 8:10 (KJV) And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness. Whose body is dead, and how is it dead?

Like everything Satan does, it's a corruption of something good: 1 Timothy 2:9 (KJV) In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel

Your description of the foundation of the world is one of an object, not of a time. "From the foundation of the world" would indicate a location. I have a hard time seeing how that fits with either context. Your question is a good one, though I've already answered it partially. Foundation of...

It's interesting that you referenced Job 38:6, "eden" I can see it's not the same word, exactly, but I'm pretty sure God uses literary devices that allows for one "eden" to hint at another, especially in Job. And certainly Revelation, written in Greek, could carry both connotations. But even...

That's why I attributed it to B57.

Webster 1828 doesn't define it so narrowly as you. Original; rise; as the foundationof the world. So it could be the whole creation week. Narrow definitions will adversely affect your theology.

Loves them enough to assign them to hell for Adam's sin, according to B57's view.

I think there were: Adam and Eve.

I'm not ignoring, I'm just not agreeing. The problem with your way of reading it is that it then leaves you with two options. 1. That every wicked person from the foundation of the world would then be "on the earth", or 2. That everybody who has not been written in the book of life was...