Paul did not write Hebrews; we do not know who did

Hoping

Well-known member
Banned
Yes, and I even understand it. You should learn to understand it too.
Hmmm...
The verse that I quoted was John explaining WHY he was water baptizing. It's too bad that you are blind.
John's reason was as true today as it was yesterday.
It hasn't changed but in one way.
Now it is done in the name of Jesus Christ...thanks be to God.
The body of Christ has only ONE baptism and it has no water.
Water baptism is associated with the nation of Israel and what God was doing with them.
Using misinterpreted scripture. I could come to the same conclusion.
But my teachers didn't misinterpret any scriptures.
 

Right Divider

Body part
Good, now you are opening your mind.
There are men who are Israelites in Christ.
In the BODY OF CHRIST there is neither Jew NOR Greek.
It just doesn't give anyone any greater esteem in the eyes of God.
Israel was God's chosen people on the earth. That is temporarily suspended, but will be reinstated in the future. See Romans 9-11
Shouldn't your answer have been "no"?
Or have you changed your mind from your previous position that there are no men in Christ?
Here is the scripture again. Please get yourself a Bible.

Gal 3:27-29 (AKJV/PCE)
(3:27) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. (3:28) There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. (3:29) And if ye [be] Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
It is since I was water baptized into Him.
Your getting wet was pointless and did nothing.
 

marke

Well-known member
Every book that Paul wrote had "Paul" as the first word.
Rom 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called [to be] an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,
1Cor 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, called [to be] an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes [our] brother,
2Cor 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and Timothy [our] brother, unto the church of God which is at Corinth, with all the saints which are in all Achaia:
Gal 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;)
Eph 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Phil 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul and Timotheus, the servants of Jesus Christ, to all the saints in Christ Jesus which are at Philippi, with the bishops and deacons:
Col 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and Timotheus [our] brother,
1Thess 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians [which is] in God the Father and [in] the Lord Jesus Christ: Grace [be] unto you, and peace, from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.
2Thess 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians in God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ:
1Tim 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, [which][ is] our hope;
2Tim 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, according to the promise of life which is in Christ Jesus,
Titus 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ, according to the faith of God's elect, and the acknowledging of the truth which is after godliness;
Phlm 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) Paul, a prisoner of Jesus Christ, and Timothy [our] brother, unto Philemon our dearly beloved, and fellowlabourer,
Heb 1:1 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:1) God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

Thirteen times Paul puts HIS name as the first word of his epistle and yet it's NOT there in the book to the HEBREWS.
2Thess 3:17 (AKJV/PCE)
(3:17) The salutation of Paul with mine own hand, which is the token in every epistle: so I write.

No, someone else wrote to the Hebrews.

P.S. Why would the apostle of the gentiles write a book to the HEBREWS?
Regardless of what scribe penned Hebrews, the entire Bible was verbally inspired by God.
 

Idolater

"Foundation of the World" Dispensationalist χρ
The OT and NT were written for all men, with no passages not meant for Christians.
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
 

Right Divider

Body part
The OT and NT were written for all men, with no passages not meant for Christians.
Since you cannot understand the context of various books of the Bible, I can see why you are confused.

When a book starts with "...to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad...", this must be taken into account when reading it.

To believe that everything is the Bible is written directly TO you will lead to many false doctrines and lots of confusion.
 

Hoping

Well-known member
Banned
Since you cannot understand the context of various books of the Bible, I can see why you are confused.

When a book starts with "...to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad...", this must be taken into account when reading it.

To believe that everything is the Bible is written directly TO you will lead to many false doctrines and lots of confusion.
And holiness.
 

marke

Well-known member
Since you cannot understand the context of various books of the Bible, I can see why you are confused.

When a book starts with "...to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad...", this must be taken into account when reading it.

To believe that everything is the Bible is written directly TO you will lead to many false doctrines and lots of confusion.
I do not believe James was writing to churches of believing Jews that God had separated from churches of believing Gentiles.
 

Idolater

"Foundation of the World" Dispensationalist χρ
I do not believe James was writing to churches of believing Jews that God had separated from churches of believing Gentiles.
Nobody believes that except Dispies. You're on a Dispie forum don't forget.
 

marke

Well-known member
Nobody believes that except Dispies. You're on a Dispie forum don't forget.
I believe in dispensations but I do not believe there is a legitimate division ordained by God between churches of Jewish Christians and churches of Gentile Christians.
 

Right Divider

Body part
I do not believe James was writing to churches of believing Jews that God had separated from churches of believing Gentiles.
You can believe error if you like, but "TO THE TWELVE TRIBES" is 100% clearly excluding gentiles as part of James' intended audience.
 
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Right Divider

Body part
I believe in dispensations but I do not believe there is a legitimate division ordained by God between churches of Jewish Christians and churches of Gentile Christians.
In the body of Christ there is NEITHER Jew NOR Greek.
James as not a member of the body of Christ, he was a member of the nation of Israel. James explicitly writes his epistle TO THE TWELVE TRIBES. So clear that you cannot miss it, but apparently you do.
 

Right Divider

Body part
The Dispies do. The Jewish church is the New Covenant and the other one is called the Body of Christ and is under Paul's gospel's dispensation of grace. And never the twain shall meet. (btw the Jewish New Covenant church is "on hold" right now, according to the Dispies.)
Indeed, we believe the scripture.
 

marke

Well-known member
You can believe error if you like, but "TO THE TWELVE TRIBES" is 100% clearly excluding gentiles as part of James' intended audience.
I'm not convinced. Are these 12 tribes Christians or Jews or both? Did they meet in assemblies of believers like Christians but separate from Christians? I have never seen any historical writings that support the idea that believing Jews had separate churches from Christians from Christian churches.
 

marke

Well-known member
In the body of Christ there is NEITHER Jew NOR Greek.
James as not a member of the body of Christ, he was a member of the nation of Israel. James explicitly writes his epistle TO THE TWELVE TRIBES. So clear that you cannot miss it, but apparently you do.
James instructed his followers to call for the elders of the church and to pray to the Lord for healing. If these Jews were Christian then why did they keep separate from Gentile Christians? Paul rebuked Peter for holding some similar erroneous views.
 

Right Divider

Body part
I'm not convinced.
That's because you are stubbornly clinging to Churchianity.
Are these 12 tribes Christians or Jews or both?
If you do not know who the twelve tribes of Israel are, you have a lot to learn.
Did they meet in assemblies of believers like Christians but separate from Christians?
Acts 11:19 (AKJV/PCE)
(11:19) ¶ Now they which were scattered abroad upon the persecution that arose about Stephen travelled as far as Phenice, and Cyprus, and Antioch, preaching the word to none but unto the Jews only.
I have never seen any historical writings that support the idea that believing Jews had separate churches from Christians from Christian churches.
That you have "never seen" something is irrelevant. Read the BIBLE.
 

Right Divider

Body part
James instructed his followers to call for the elders of the church and to pray to the Lord for healing.
They were actually healing people... ALL of the people.

Acts 5:14-16 (AKJV/PCE)
(5:14) And believers were the more added to the Lord, multitudes both of men and women.) (5:15) Insomuch that they brought forth the sick into the streets, and laid [them] on beds and couches, that at the least the shadow of Peter passing by might overshadow some of them. (5:16) There came also a multitude [out] of the cities round about unto Jerusalem, bringing sick folks, and them which were vexed with unclean spirits: and they were healed every one.
If these Jews were Christian then why did they keep separate from Gentile Christians? Paul rebuked Peter for holding some similar erroneous views.
You have so much to learn.
 
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