Have you learned the shema?

[Jacob]

Lilstu posted Philippians 2:8-11 NASB.

Consider the following scriptures.

1 Corinthians 12:3 NASB - 3 Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus is accursed"; and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit.

Romans 6:23 NASB - 23 For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

1 Corinthians 1:9 NASB - 9 God is faithful, through whom you were called into fellowship with His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord.

1 Corinthians 8:6 NASB - 6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him.

2 Corinthians 11:31 NASB - 31 The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, He who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying.

Philippians 2:11 NASB - 11 and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

 

[Lilstu]

From Hebrews 1:5.....
I WILL BE A FATHER TO HIM
AND HE SHALL BE A SON TO ME"?

Notice the future tense?
If Jesus was the Son of God from the "beginning" then it should have read.............
I AM A FATHER TO HIM
AND HE IS A SON TO ME"?

But this is a quotation from the Hebrew Scriptures [2Samuel 7:14] which you will find enlightening.

""I will be a father to him and he will be a son to Me; when he commits iniquity, I will correct him with the rod of men and the strokes of the sons of men, ""

""when he commits iniquity,"""??? It says "'when"" not ""if""he commits iniquity.

Is this Son of God, a God or is he a man? God doesn't commit iniquity but a man does.

 

[beameup]

Philippians 2:8-11 (New American Standard Bible)
8Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
9For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name,
10so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

""""God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name,"""

God gave Jesus the name....if Jesus were God he would have anything he wanted and wouldn't have to depend on God to give him anything.

Throughout the O.T., the 2nd Person in the Godhead is asked to give "his name" and he refuses.
After taking upon Himself the form of a man, He is given a "name which is above every name" by the 1st Person in the Godhead (ie: "Father"). The problem is is that you are lacking in "complete information" (or as card-players say "you are playing without a full deck"); as the entirety of the Old Testament will give you the additional information you are lacking (ie: a "full deck").

I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall confess. - Isaiah 45:23

For it is written, As I live, saith the LORD, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God (ie: "Father"). - Romans 14:11

That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is LORD, to the glory of God the Father. - Philippians 2:10-11

Notice the progression in revelation.

Hashem - The Name http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?118923-HaShem-The-Name

 

[chair]

Look at these Hebrew names and their meanings.

Ishmael .......God hears
Jezreel........God will sow seed
Jehdeiah......May YHWH feel glad
Elnathan......God has given
Eldab...........God has loved

Nobody would expect that these names would have anything to do with Divinity.
The point is that "God" names were common and did not equate to any connection with being a god.

Hebrew names of this sort are quite common today. I even have a grandson named "everlasting father" (AviAd). He is a very cute three year old, but he is not God. I am quite certain of this.

 

[beameup]

So the Gentiles shall fear THE NAME of the LORD,
and all the kings of the earth thy glory.
When the LORD shall build up Zion,
HE shall appear in his glory.

Psalm 102:15-16

 

[Lilstu]

Throughout the O.T., the 2nd Person in the Godhead is asked to give "his name" and he refuses.
After taking upon Himself the form of a man, He is given a "name which is above every name" by the 1st Person in the Godhead (ie: "Father"). The problem is is that you are lacking in "complete information" (or as card-players say "you are playing without a full deck"); as the entirety of the Old Testament will give you the additional information you are lacking (ie: a "full deck").


Notice the progression in revelation.

Hashem - The Name http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?118923-HaShem-The-Name

I think your "deck" has too many jokers.
Jesus is not Yod He Vav He

 

[Lilstu]

Hebrews 2:17
Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.

His bretheren were humans.
If Jesus is a god/man then he is NOT like ""His brethren in all things"".

Start dealing a new deck.

 

[TweetyBird]

Because people understand what I'm saying if I use it. I could have also said "God", which isn't Hebrew either.

"yahweh" is incorrect, so why use it? There is no such word/name in Hebrew. Even the Jews have no issue with using "God", but are definitely amused with "yahweh". They use "God" with a hyphen to show reverence [G-d]. "God" is the English form of "Theos" which is used in the Greek. Jesus, the disciples, and all of the writers of the NT used Theos. Not one verse in the NT uses YHWH.

 

[SimpleMan77]

"yahweh" is incorrect, so why use it? There is no such word/name in Hebrew. Even the Jews have no issue with using "God", but are definitely amused with "yahweh". They use "God" with a hyphen to show reverence [G-d]. "God" is the English form of "Theos" which is used in the Greek. Jesus, the disciples, and all of the writers of the NT used Theos. Not one verse in the NT uses YHWH.

Actually none of them used the word "Jesus" either. It is an English rendering.

YAHWEH or Jehovah is a linguistic guess of what the name originally was. No one knows because the Jews once pronounced it, but ceased doing so many generations back.

This is really splitting hairs. Is it ok with you that I use the English "Jesus" instead of His Hebrew name?


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[TweetyBird]

I don't know what you mean. Moses is a prophet of God.

See John 5 NASB.

You focus on the Law and Moses, not on Jesus. It's either one or the other, not both. When Peter, James and John were on the Mt of Transfiguration, God did not say listen to Moses and Jesus, He said, listen to my SON. When Moses said there would be a prophet raised like him and to listen to that Prophet. Moses did not say, listen to Him and me. You are listening to the wrong prophet.

 

[TweetyBird]

Look here ...with your theology, the father , the son, and the holy ghost are each a god.
1..2..3...I count 3 gods.
Galatians 3:20 Now a mediator is not for one party only; whereas God is only one.

Ephesians 4:6one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all.

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,

James 2:19 You believe that God is one. You do well; the demons also believe, and shudder.

Nope. One God, triue.

 

[TweetyBird]

It's really funny that when one does a search for the word "incarnation" in the Bible we get.....No results found.

"hypostasis".....no results found

"consubstantiality" .....no results found.

Yet, these terms are needed to adequately explain the Trinity.

Was the Bible written for a bunch of theologians to understand the Trinity?
Or was the Bible written for the common man to understand the nature of God?

So why is it necessary for Trinitarians to use terms that are foreign to the Bible to explain the Trinity? Whatever happened to the principle "Let the Bible explain the Bible"?

But the funniest trick of Trinity explanation is the use of the word "person".
Trinitarians say God is in three "persons".
But a "person" is a human being.
I don't know....is there a Scripture where God is referred to as a "person"???

I believe God is triune because the entire Bible shows that He is.

 

[TweetyBird]

Yes.

Hebrews 1:3 says Jesus was the "brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person".

If you have a photo of someone, you have an "image of the person". The person is the "person of the image".

One person in the Godhead, made visible when that one person became a man.

God is not visible. He is a Spirit, unseen. Jesus is not the physical image of God - He is the essence of God: God manifest in the flesh as the likeness of man = Jesus.

 

[TweetyBird]

"I AM"s a trick by the translators to match Exodus 3:14 to appear that Jesus is claiming divinity
Has anyone ever checked out Exodus 3:14 in a Jewish Bible?
The Chabad Translation has "I will be what I will be"
The Stone Chumash has it "I shall be as I shall be."
Rashi rendered it as "I will be what I will be."
The Pentateuch by Hirsch, has it as "I shall be that which I will be."

The Jewish Bibles translate this phrase with a future tense, while Christian Bibles put it in the present tense. [I am]
Were the Christian translators influenced to create a match with John 8:58 ???
After all, Exodus is part of the Hebrew Scriptures of the Jews. It is really their book. Shouldn't their translation take precedence?

At the preceeding verse, Exodus 3:13, Moses says.."""Behold, I am going to the sons of Israel, and I will say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you.' Now they may say to me, 'What is His name?' What shall I say to them?"""
The sons of Israel may ask Moses....'""What is His name?"" because they did not know the God who was speaking to Moses.
IMO God's answer in the future tense..."I will be what I will be" is really a promise by God that in the future he will be who he will prove to be. As we know, God brought the plagues on Egypt, and delivered the sons of Israel from slavery. He promised...and he literally proved that he will be what he will be....God Almighty.

Actually, the YHWH is a verb, meaning, I AM THAT I AM without ceasing, constant, forever. God is not future tense, but present, for all infinity. God is the beginning and the end, the everlasting without end. Jewish Bibles written by unbelieving Jews do not accept Jesus as the Messiah or the Son of God or God manifest in the flesh. To use their view of God is incomplete. Without Christ, one cannot know God.

 

[SimpleMan77]

God is not visible. He is a Spirit, unseen. Jesus is not the physical image of God - He is the essence of God: God manifest in the flesh as the likeness of man = Jesus.

Colossians 1:15 KJV
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

NIV
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

NLT
Christ is the visible image of the invisible God. He existed before anything was created and is supreme over all creation

Young's Literal Translation
who is the image of the invisible God, first-born of all creation,

And dozens more... all say "image of the invisible God".


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[TweetyBird]

Philippians 2:8-11 (New American Standard Bible)
8Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
9For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name,
10so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

""""God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name,"""

God gave Jesus the name....if Jesus were God he would have anything he wanted and wouldn't have to depend on God to give him anything.

The prophecy in the OT is that the Messiah would save people from their sins aka JESUS which means, God saves or God is Salvation [Yeshua].

You also forgot the front half of that passage:

Phil 2
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 but made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

 

[beameup]

I think your "deck" has too many jokers.
Jesus is not Yod He Vav He

You mean like this:

NOTE: the top line is the original paleo-Hebrew pictographs/symbols/characters that Moses used.

 

[TweetyBird]

Actually none of them used the word "Jesus" either. It is an English rendering.

Jesus is a transliteration[not a translation] of Yeshua. They mean the exact same thing.

YAHWEH or Jehovah is a linguistic guess of what the name originally was. No one knows because the Jews once pronounced it, but ceased doing so many generations back.

Jehovah is probably a bit more accurate because that is in line with the Hebrew [the scholarly view is 3 syllables, not 2]. But you are right, His actual Name is unknown until the age to come.

"yahweh" is incorrect because the theophoric element [YH] is never pronounced as "yay", but "Yeh" or Yo"

This is really splitting hairs. Is it ok with you that I use the English "Jesus" instead of His Hebrew name?

Jesus is good because it is the transliteration of Yeshua It is not splitting hairs. There is a rather large faction of people who believe that if you do not pronounce the YHWH as "yahweh" you are going to hell.

 

[TweetyBird]

Colossians 1:15 KJV
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

NIV
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

NLT
Christ is the visible image of the invisible God. He existed before anything was created and is supreme over all creation

Young's Literal Translation
who is the image of the invisible God, first-born of all creation,

And dozens more... all say "image of the invisible God".

The word image means more of a representation aka character, not that Jesus looks like God. God is a Spirit, unseen - "invisible God" in the verse you quoted. How can God have a physical form if He is invisible? Adam was made in the image of God as well, but he did not look like God. He had the characteristics of God. Do you think when we are conformed to the image of Christ, we are going to look like His literal human form on earth and all look exactly alike?

Rom 8
29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren

 

[TweetyBird]

You mean like this:
[/IMG]

NOTE: the top line is the original paleo-Hebrew symbols/characters that Moses used.

Nope. Moses did not write in paleo Hebrew. Who told you this?

["The Phoenician alphabet developed from the Proto-Canaanite alphabet, during the 15th century BC. Before then the Phoenicians wrote with a cuneiform script. The earliest known inscriptions in the Phoenician alphabet come from Byblos and date back to 1000 BC.

The Phoenician alphabet was perhaps the first alphabetic script to be widely-used - the Phoenicians traded around the Mediterraean and beyond, and set up cities and colonies in parts of southern Europe and North Africa - and the origins of most alphabetic writing systems can be traced back to the Phoenician alphabet, including Greek, Etruscan, Latin, Arabic and Hebrew, as well as the scripts of India and East Asia."]