Interplanner
Well-known member
Mark 1:2 (NIV)
Why does the NIV lie to us?
You've picked on odd one, but I'll try to help.
1, sometimes when verses are quoted together from different places, the last is the identifier. I don't know why. It is prob a synagogue tradition. That's one issue, not that it matters much.
2, The best Greek texts are Aleph, A, B, D and p46 (Papyrus 46). If you have most of those 5 supporting a wording you are on solid ground. On this variation:
Aleph, B: go with what the NIV has.
D: the same but with an extra article before Isaiah, as though he was going to say 'the scroll of'
A: has 'in the prophets' making a bit more sense when 2-3 are being quoted.
p46 does not include Mark as far as I know. (I just checked 5 other variants in Mark at random and p46 is never mentioned, while Aleph, A, B, D are always mentioned.)
3, Lines from Ex 23 and Mal 3 are being used in v2, then Isaiah is used in v3.
It can only help you and us, if you would actually ask a real question instead of use cartoons and say it's a lie. But hey, you get praise from Tam; what else matters, right?