Begging the question. I said that it is not oppression if the cause is moral, you are assuming that it isn't possible that it is.
What you or I or anyone else thinks is "moral' has no bearing on what is or is not oppression. When the desires of one group of people are forced on another group of people it is oppression. It makes no difference whether the oppressive ideology is "moral" in the eyes of the oppressors or not.
Which are based on normative ethics and a very specific philosophical outlook. Do you think that the US ideals of individual freedom and absolute autonomy are not based on ideology?
Everything is based on "ideology" to some degree, but when we define it this loosely, it becomes a meaningless term.
The founders of the United States told the whole world why they were creating their own nation. They were being oppressed by England, and had decided that they must end this oppression by declaring and defending their own autonomy. They declared this:
The unanimous Declaration of the thirteen united States of America,
When in the Course of human events, it becomes necessary for one people to dissolve the political bands which have connected them with another, and to assume among the powers of the earth, the separate and equal station to which the Laws of Nature and of Nature's God entitle them, a decent respect to the opinions of mankind requires that they should declare the causes which impel them to the separation.
We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.--That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed, --That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness. Prudence, indeed, will dictate that Governments long established should not be changed for light and transient causes; and accordingly all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed. But when a long train of abuses and usurpations, pursuing invariably the same Object evinces a design to reduce them under absolute Despotism, it is their right, it is their duty, to throw off such Government, and to provide new Guards for their future security.--Such has been the patient sufferance of these Colonies; and such is now the necessity which constrains them to alter their former Systems of Government. The history of the present King of Great Britain is a history of repeated injuries and usurpations, all having in direct object the establishment of an absolute Tyranny over these States. To prove this, let Facts be submitted to a candid world.
They went on to disclose a long list of grievances regarding the oppression of England. And not one of those grievances was about religious ideology. They were mostly economic, or about the denial of social self-determination. And you can see this reflected in their opening declaration.
The United States was not created because the Colonies were feeling religiously oppressed. And it was not created to support, promote, or otherwise express any religious ideology or moral imperatives. It was created because the people in the Colonies were being politically and economically oppressed, and needed to establish their own system of social government to establish their right to economic, political, and social self-determination.
The desire for autonomy (self-determination) is not a 'moral imperative'. It is a 'natural condition' or desire, bestowed by God through the act of creation. I understand that you may view such natural conditions as perhaps some divine moral absolute, but that's really just a matter of semantics.
This is simply rephrasing to make it avoid sound like a moral imperative. Why are you protecting other individuals from theft and murder? You can reduce everything in your statement here to normative ethics, and anthropology hence they are moral imperatives. As if protecting the rights of the individuals wasn't a moral imperative.
Property rights are not particularly "ethical". What they are is functional. Ethically speaking, we should probably all be sharing what we have with each other. But when we try to apply such an ethical approach, it doesn't work. Because functionally, we are too selfish for it to work. Our laws are about keeping the peace and social order among individuals with different ethical priorities. They are about what works for us in pursuit of our individual goals. They are not about making us behave "ethically". Communism was about trying to make people behave ethically, and it was a dismal failure because God has already determined that we human beings be free to determine our own ethical and moral imperatives. And we will do so regardless of any governmental moral or ethical commandments. That's why few governments on the Earth waste their time trying to force moral and ethical imperatives on people, anymore. History has shown that it just doesn't work very well. Instead, they either try to enforce the selfish desires of the rulers, pander to the moral preferences of the majority, or they try to simply keep the peace and let people otherwise do as they will. And most of us prefer the latter.
The question in this thread is whether the unborn have rights.
You assume that the current state of affairs regarding this issue are correct. The question is whether the fetus has rights, if it does, then its rights to live trumps the right to convenience.
You seem to be intellectually/emotionally incapable of grasping the idea that this is about social function, and not about who is morally "right".
Everyone agrees that human beings have a right to live at least until they try to deny other human beings of that same right. But in this case, we don't know when human beings become human beings. The determination made on this question by the courts was not based on "morality" or "ethics". It was based on social functionality, as most law in this country is. And what functions best is self-determination. Moral autonomy. People get to make their own decisions as long as their decisions do not deny other people their right to self-determination, too. THAT'S why killing people is illegal. That's why stealing their property is illegal. And that's why killing a human being even in the womb is illegal. That's been the court's determination all along.
BUT, the question remains, when does a human being become a human being, in the womb or not? How can the court identify what a "human being" is? And that, too, has been determined based on function and autonomy, not on 'morality". A human being is a human being when it can survive without the biological dependence upon the mother's body. And that occurs typically between the 22nd and 24th weeks of development. It's at that point that the courts have determined that the biological entity
could exist on it's own, apart from the mother's body, and so it's at that point that it can be recognized as an autonomous human being.
Seems to me that you are arguing that absolute individualistic autonomy trumps any rights the fetus may or may not have (which is the discussion of this topic).
Functionally speaking, the fetus is a
part of the mother until such time as it would be capable of surviving apart from the mother's body. So this is the criteria the courts used. No one said anything about absolutes. When autonomy is possible, autonomy is awarded to the fetus, and protected by law.
It's not a decision based on moral righteousness. It' a decision based on functional observation.
Of course the case of rape is extreme and very difficult. I am simply insisting that we base that decision on a rational debate.
The circumstances of conception don't really have anything to do with any of this. It remains the mother's decision until the 22nd-24th week. At that point the courts have observed that the fetus
could survive as an autonomous human being, and so it's at that point that the law considers it one, and protects it as such.
The law is not debating moral righteousness. It's simply trying to establish a functional social precident.