toldailytopic: How does God judge the mentally handicapped when they die?

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Ask Mr. Religion

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Whether I'm an open theist or not, God foreknowing who will or will not be saved has nothing to do with the text. You (Calvinists) use the text to support your claim that God chooses who will be saved and who will not be saved, in that he predestines their eternal destination.

The Bible does not teach this, as I showed in my original post.
Ghost,

Try as you might, you cannot succeed in turning this into a Calvinist diatribe. As already noted, the matter is not a Calvinist nor an Arminian issue, for both camps do not deny God knows each and every particular person who will be re-born.

Only an open theist, whether you want the label or not, would dare to deny that God knows the names of each and every person who will be re-born. Once you begin by undermining the attributes of God so clearly taught in Scripture, there is no end to the erroneous views that can be constructed on such as foundation of shifting sands.

Either God has all power and knowledge or He does not. There is no middle ground. Knowledge without power is weak. Power without knowledge is dangerous. Begin with a wholly sovereign God and you will quickly see how your views begin to crumble. You cannot. You must weaken what God knows in order to import your view into your position. This is the slippery slope towards all manner of heresy.

This is the third time in the same thread you have skirted dealing with how foreknow/foreknew is used in Scripture. I have provided you with a starting point to dig deeper in hopes you will be open to correction. You can continue to cavil against Calvinism, but it only demonstrates your unwillingness to educate yourself further.

Those that love God are those that God has so loved from eternity. Their very faith springs wholly from God. He knows them by name, Ghost. You have clearly claimed God does not, for you argue they are but an amorphous "all" that God does not know specifically whom comprises this "all". This is a distinction without merit given the testimony of Scripture, which I have provided in my earlier post.

If you are not an open theist, then just say so. Are you or are you not? Just don't claim God does not know who are His adopted children by name in the same breath. This is double-mindedness (James 1:8).

AMR
 

andyc

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Before the foundation of the world, it was God's purpose and His intent that ALL those in Christ are chosen by God to be holy and without blame before Him. This is God's love in action, that we, by His grace and mercy would receive that which we could never achieve. God foreordained that ALL those who are in Christ, WILL BE holy and blameless because they are "in Him".

Who are the ones that God foreknew?

God did not foreknow who will be in Christ and who will not be in Christ

:doh:

......but God did foreknow that all those who are in Christ will be conformed to His image.

I'm surprised that you would choose to compromise God's omniscience in an attempt to refute the doctrine of limited atonement.

Galatians 1:15 But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother‘s womb and called me through His grace to reveal His Son in me, that I might preach Him among the Gentiles, I did not immediately confer with flesh and blood,


Why was Paul separated from his mother's womb?
God certainly foreknows who the elect are, even when they're running in the opposite direction.

1Pet 1:1-2
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To the pilgrims of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied.
 

andyc

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Ghost,

Try as you might, you cannot succeed in turning this into a Calvinist diatribe. As already noted, the matter is not a Calvinist nor an Arminian issue, for both camps do not deny God knows each and every particular person who will be re-born.

Only an open theist, whether you want the label or not, would dare to deny that God knows the names of each and every person who will be re-born. Once you begin by undermining the attributes of God so clearly taught in Scripture, there is no end to the erroneous views that can be constructed on such as foundation of shifting sands.

Either God has all power and knowledge or He does not. There is no middle ground. Knowledge without power is weak. Power without knowledge is dangerous. Begin with a wholly sovereign God and you will quickly see how your views begin to crumble. You cannot. You must weaken what God knows in order to import your view into your position. This is the slippery slope towards all manner of heresy.

This is the third time in the same thread you have skirted dealing with how foreknow/foreknew is used in Scripture. I have provided you with a starting point to dig deeper in hopes you will be open to correction. You can continue to cavil against Calvinism, but it only demonstrates your unwillingness to educate yourself further.

Those that love God are those that God has so loved from eternity. Their very faith springs wholly from God. He knows them by name, Ghost. You have clearly claimed God does not, for you argue they are but an amorphous "all" that God does not know specifically whom comprises this "all". This is a distinction without merit given the testimony of Scripture, which I have provided in my earlier post.

If you are not an open theist, then just say so. Are you or are you not? Just don't claim God does not know who are His adopted children by name in the same breath. This is double-mindedness (James 1:8).

AMR

Yeah.
He hasn't actually dealt with the justice or injustice factor of limited atonement, he's simply waving the flag for open theism. I can't see how he can deny being an open theist, with his comments on God's foreknowledge. I don't believe it is God who limits the atonement, and I certainly do not believe that God's omniscience is limited.
 

Pam Baldwin

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Just because you may be closer to the truth, it's still not the truth, and it only means that it's going to be more difficult to have your mind changed.

Good point. :thumb:

That is why Satan used God's Word to deceive.....it's much harder to discern when there is some truth there.
 

Pam Baldwin

New member
Ghost,

If this is your view, then you do not understand the meaning of foreknow/foreknew from Scripture. Briefly, when the word is used, it is in the intimate sense, just as in Adam knew Eve. See, for example, Amos 3:2; Deuteronomy 7:7,8; 10:15; Hebrews 12:5-6; Jeremiah 1:5; Matt. 7:22-23; I Corinthians 8:3; II Timothy 2:19; Romans 8:28.

Murray sums it up succinctly:

.“It should be observed that the text says ‘whom He foreknew’; whom is the object of the verb and there is no qualifying addition. This, of itself, shows that, unless there is some other compelling reason, the expression ‘whom he foreknew’ contains within itself the differentiation which is presupposed.

If the apostle had in mind some ‘qualifying adjunct’ it would have been simple to supply it. Since he adds none we are forced to inquire if the actual terms he uses can express the differentiation implied. The usage of Scripture provides an affirmative answer. Although the term ‘foreknew’ is used seldom in the New Testament, it is altogether indefensible to ignore the meaning so frequently given to the word ‘know’ in the usage of Scripture; ‘foreknow’ merely adds the thought of ‘beforehand’ to the word ‘know’.

Many times in Scripture ‘know’ has a pregnant meaning which goes beyond that of mere cognition. It is used in a sense practically synonymous with ‘love’, to set regard upon, to know with peculiar interest, delight, affection, and action (cf. Gen 18:19; Exod. 2:25; Psalm 1:6; 144:3; Jer. 1:5; Amos 3:2; Hosea 13:5; Matt 7:23; I Cor. 8:3; Gal. 4:9; II Tim. 2:19; I John 3:1).There is no reason why this import of the word ‘know’ should not be applied to ‘foreknow’ in this passage, as also in 11:2 where it also occurs in the same kind of construction and where the thought of election is patently present (cf. 11:5,6).

When this import is appreciated, then there is no reason for adding any qualifying notion and ‘whom He foreknew’ is seen to contain within itself the differentiating element required. It means ‘whom he set regard upon’ or ‘whom he knew from eternity with distinguishing affection and delight’ and is virtually equivalent to ‘whom he foreloved’. This interpretation, furthermore, is in agreement with the efficient and determining action which is so conspicuous in every other link of the chain – it is God who predestinates, it is God who calls, it is God who justifies, and it is He who glorifies. Foresight of faith would be out of accord with the determinative action which is predicated of God in these other instances and would constitute a weakening of the total emphasis at the point where we should least expect it….It is not the foresight of difference but the foreknowledge that makes difference to exist, not a foresight that recognizes existence but the foreknowledge that determines existence. It is a sovereign distinguishing love.” Src: John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans, volume I, pp. 316-318.​

Similarly, Hodge observes that

"as to know is often to approve and love, it may express the idea of peculiar affection in this case; or it may mean to select or determine upon….The usage of the word is favourable to either modification of this general idea of preferring. The people which he foreknew, i.e., loved or selected, Rom. 11:2; Who verily was foreordained (Gr. foreknown), i.e., fixed upon, chosen before the foundation of the world. I Peter 1:20; II Tim. 2:19; John 10:14,15; see also Acts 2:23; I Peter 1:2.

The idea, therefore, obviously is, that those whom God peculiarly loved, and by thus loving, distinguished or selected from the rest of mankind; or to express both ideas in one word, those whom he elected he predestined, etc. Src: Charles Hodge, Commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, pp. 283, 284.​

Moreover, faith cannot be the cause of foreknowledge, since foreknowledge is before predestination, and faith is the effect of predestination. As many as were ordained to eternal life believed (Acts 13:48). Indeed, even if one adopts the Arminian view of foreseen faith, this faith foreseen by God is the faith God Himself creates (e.g., John 3:3-8; 6:44;45,65; Eph. 2:8; Philippians 1:29; 2 Pet. 1:2). Thus, even the Arminian will claim that God's eternal foresight of faith is preconditioned by his decree to generate this faith in those whom God foresees as believing. Which leads to my next point.

All readers should note: From the above, this is clearly not a Calvinism issue nor an Arminian issue, for both camps fully agree that God knows specifically each and every person who will be re-born. Instead the differences between both camps lie with the basis of God's knowledge: whether God knows what will happen because He ordains it certain or whether God knows what will happen because His creatures render it certain--all of which is a topic for other threads to discuss and not relevant here.

But what is relevant is that Ghost's (a.k.a., Sozo, Mystery, madman, outlaw) view is that of the open theist. In the past Ghost has skirted around fully appropriating the openist label for himself, but he might as well come clean and own it now, given his view that God does not know beforehand who will or will not "be in Christ".

From an openist's position, Ghost's post above probably resonates. Unfortunately, the position is built upon faulty assumptions of the attributes of God, in particular for this situation, God's omnscience. Not surprisingly, all aberrant theological views will inevitably lead back to the root error of lack of proper understanding of theology proper (the study of the doctrine of God's nature from Scripture).

There are only two important questions in life, "Who is God?" and "Who is Jesus Christ?" Get them wrong, and you will potentially go off worshiping an intellectual idol of your own making at your temporal and/or eternal peril.

AMR

Great post, AMR.

But you could condense the two important questions to one:
Who is God?
 

Pam Baldwin

New member
I believe that all who die in infancy die in innocence, and therefore go straight to heaven. The thing is, I can't understand how some people can have such hatred of the thought that God does not want to save everyone, but there's no problem for them accepting that God doesn't want to heal everyone. If God heals a child with leukemia, glory to God, but if doesn't, what then?

Even non Calvinists have their little pet sovereignty theories. Maybe its the fact that salvation is out of our hands, but healing is our responsibility?
Jesus didn't tell us to save the lost, but he did tell us to heal the sick.

andyc, it really doesn't matter "what you believe". Belief does not=facts.
I believe that if I played my birthday in the lottery, I will win in less than a year....will I? People believe that Hell is a party place and they'll have a grand time with all their friends there....so now it's a reality?

So, can you substantiate that claim about babies?

Are they innocent? If you believe this, then you believe that man is born perfect, sinless.

When do they cross over from infancy to non-infancy?IOW, when are they going to go to Hell if they die?

If you can pinpoint a time when babies are now going to go to Hell unless that are regenerated, my recommendation is to make sure they never reach that time in their life.....( I realize that this statement has been posted many times before on TOL....but so has a lot of this stuff!)


andyc, I like your point about why people are up in arms on healing vs salvation. Good point! Nothing is in our hands...salvation or healing.
 

andyc

New member
andyc, it really doesn't matter "what you believe". Belief does not=facts.
I believe that if I played my birthday in the lottery, I will win in less than a year....will I? People believe that Hell is a party place and they'll have a grand time with all their friends there....so now it's a reality?

So, can you substantiate that claim about babies?

Are they innocent? If you believe this, then you believe that man is born perfect, sinless.

When do they cross over from infancy to non-infancy?IOW, when are they going to go to Hell if they die?

If you can pinpoint a time when babies are now going to go to Hell unless that are regenerated, my recommendation is to make sure they never reach that time in their life.....( I realize that this statement has been posted many times before on TOL....but so has a lot of this stuff!)


andyc, I like your point about why people are up in arms on healing vs salvation. Good point! Nothing is in our hands...salvation or healing.

The consequences of Adam sin are physical. So when infants die physically they pay the penalty for Adam's sin. And the fact that they had not committed any sins of their own means that they are spiritually innocent. God does not condemn the innocent.

2Samuel 12:20-23
So David arose from the ground, washed and anointed himself, and changed his clothes; and he went into the house of the LORD and worshiped. Then he went to his own house; and when he requested, they set food before him, and he ate. Then his servants said to him, "What is this that you have done? You fasted and wept for the child while he was alive, but when the child died, you arose and ate food." And he said, "While the child was alive, I fasted and wept; for I said, ‘Who can tell whether the LORD will be gracious to me, that the child may live? "But now he is dead; why should I fast? Can I bring him back again? I shall go to him, but he shall not return to me."


The child's death was as a result of judgement for David's adultery and murder, and yet David said, "I shall go to him". All illegitimate children were cursed under the law (Deut 23:2), but David knew as I do that God does not condemn infants in eternity.

Matthew 19:14 Jesus said, "Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of heaven belongs to such as these."

While a little child is innocent of sin, God holds nothing against them. I have a little sister who died when she was 18 months old, and I know she is in heaven.
 

Ask Mr. Religion

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Great post, AMR.

But you could condense the two important questions to one:
Who is God?
I get the point, Pam. Unfortunately, there will be some who get the whole aspect of the Incarnation wrong, and end up in one of the several heresies we see espoused in these forums.

The nature of the Incarnation is not (aberrations shown at the end of each point)...

1. a denial that Christ was truly God (Ebionites, Elkasites, Arians);
2. a dissimilar or different substance (anomoios) with the Father (semi-Arianism);
3. a denial that Christ had a genuine human soul (Apollinarians);
4. a denial of a distinct person in the Trinity (Dynamic Monarchianism);
5. God acting merely in the forms of the Son and Spirit (Modalistic Monarchianism/Sabellianism/United Pentecostal Church);
6. a mixture or change when the two natures were united (Eutychianism/Monophysitism);
7. two distinct persons (Nestorianism);
8. a denial of the true humanity of Christ (docetism);
9. a view that God the Son laid aside all or some of His divine attributes (kenoticism);
10. a view that there was a communication of the attributes between the divine and human natures (Lutheranism, with respect to the Lord's Supper); and
11. a view that Jesus existed independently as a human before God entered His body (Adoptionism).


Thus understanding Who is Jesus Christ? certainly starts with the fact that He is God the Son, the second person of the Trinity. Unfortunately there are those who deny even the beginning fact that Jesus Christ was truly God.

AMR
 
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