I believe that at that point in time national Israel was temporarily set aside.
If so, why did the following prophecy against Israel take place 40 years later?
(Luke 19:43-44) The days will come upon you when your enemies will build an embankment against you and encircle you and hem you in on every side. 44 They will dash you to the ground, you and the children within your walls. They will not leave one stone on another, because you did not recognize the time of God’s coming to you.
IOW, how could Israel be set aside (like you claim), but then have a prophecy fulfilled against it just 40 years later?