God's Truth
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You clearly missed my point.
It wasn't an analogy. It was an example of what the word "echad" means, it means "one of plurality." Not "one of singularity."
Did Jesus say, "This is my beloved Son, in Whom I am well pleased"?
No, not yet.
I don't have a wife, at least not yet.
You have clearly missed the point I was making above, meaning it would be pointless to respond to the rest of this paragraph.
So, just out of curiosity, why did you make the distinction just there? Why not just say "Never ever is obeying Jesus' words as doing something wrong"?
Because it's not our own language that we're using. We're using the original Hebrew to understand what was said, because some Hebrew words have more depth of meaning than do English words that has, at least somewhat, been lost in translation.
GT, I can't tell you how many times I've told you that in Hebrew there is more than one word for the word "one."
"Yachad," "bad," and "echad," all mean "one," but "yachad" and "bad" mean "one (singular)," as in, "one person," "one bicycle," and "one king." "Echad," however, means "one (of plurality)," as in "the two shall become 'one (of plurality)' flesh," and "the people are 'one (of plurality)' and they all have 'one (of plurality)' language."
The same word is used not just every so often, but EVERY SINGLE TIME in the Old Testament, to describe God as "one God."
He is 'one (of plurality)' God.
The first verse in the Bible shows that God is a plurality, but still one being.
In the beginning, God (plural noun for God) created (singular verb for create).
In English, that would be a grammatical error, and you'd get marked off if you wrote like that in school. But Moses intentionally wrote the verse that way. Or what, do you really think that he made a grammatical mistake in the very first verse of the Bible? Did God inspire him to make a mistake like that?
GT, my questions for you are these:
Did Jesus say, "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased"?
Why did you make the distinction between "Jesus' words" and "God's words" above if you believe that they are one and the same?
Do you comprehend that the english word "one" does not always have the same meaning, and that it's a poor substitution for the Hebrew words "yachad," "bad," and "echad"?
Do you really think that you prove three different Gods are written in the scriptures but called one?
One means the same. The Bible has been translated with the right word on this and it means one as in the same.
God says there is no one like Him and no one beside Him. When He says that He is not really saying there is no one like the three of them or beside the three of them.