Now you are showing your true face. When you're willing to stand still and face me on the facts, then I'll answer your question. Oh ye of little face.
That's not excuse not to answer my question. If you think I'm avoiding anything you're highlighting plainly state so as I have been doing with you.
(John 1:18) "..No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.."
Scripture plainly tells us that no man has seen God at any time, you would deny a scripture such as this by claiming that it means different from how it reads, you do NOT take it for what it says but what you want it to say. John 1:18 states that no man has seen God at any time, thus the appearances of God in the OT must have been someone else other than God, the only logical and scriptual solution is that they were Angels, since this is what scripture states!
(Hebrews 13:2) "..Do not forget hospitality, for through it some unknowingly entertained angels.."
I think you don't understand my point. My point is that "face-to-face" doesn't necessitate that any literal appearance of God was seen.
Here's your issue, you claim Abraham literally saw God, you claim Jacob literally saw God, you claim Moses literally saw God and asked to see Gods form futher, yet John 1:18 "No man has seen God
at any time". Once again, you cannot have two conflicting statements that are both correct. Either God has
not been seen at any time or God
has been seen.
The scriptures plainly state elsewhere that God spoke to Moses through an Angel, that Jacob wrestled with an Angel and that Men entertained Angels without knowing, Abraham is the only person who entertained Angels in the Bible, when doing so he offered no worship but treated him/them as normal men.
In regards to Jacob he himself said he wrestled with God and that he saw him face-to-face, he even named the location where it happened "Peniʹel" which litreally means "face of God". How do we know he didn't litreally wrestle with God but rather and Angel? Because he asked him what his name was, why would Jacob, who stated he wrestled with God ask God what his name was if he already knew Gods name is Jehovah? (See Gen 27:20,27) He wouldn't! But he would ask what the angels name was if he knew that angel wasn't litreally Jehovah but his representive, hence Jacobs question.
(Genesis 32:29, 30) "..In turn Jacob inquired: “Tell me, please, your name.” However, he said: “Why is it that you ask my name?” With that he blessed him there. 30 So Jacob named the place Pe·niʹel, for he said, “I have seen God face-to-face, yet my life was preserved..”
It makes zero sense for Bible writers to claim that Angels spoke to these men if those Angels were God himself, if those Angels were God then why say they were angels, why not simply refer to them as God. The fact that they refer to Angel is evidence alone that those angels weren't God. As I have said many times representatives speak as if they are God themselves, or at least this is how Bible writers portray them.
Compare these two citations regarding the same account:
(Matthew 8:5-13) "..When he [Jesus] entered Ca·perʹna·um, an army officer came to him, pleading with him [Jesus] 6 and saying: “Sir, my servant is laid up in the house with paralysis, and he is suffering terribly.” 7 He [Jesus] said to him: “When I get there, I will cure him.” 8 The army officer replied: “Sir, I am not worthy to have you come under my roof, but just say the word and my servant will be healed. 9 For I too am a man under authority, having soldiers under me, and I say to this one, ‘Go!’ and he goes, and to another, ‘Come!’ and he comes, and to my slave, ‘Do this!’ and he does it..”
(Luke 7:1-9) "..When he [Jesus] had completed what he had to say to the people, he entered Ca·perʹna·um. 2 Now an army officer’s slave, who was dear to him, was seriously ill and about to pass away. 3 When he heard about Jesus, he sent some elders of the Jews to him to ask him to come and make his slave well. 4 They came up to Jesus and began to plead with him earnestly, saying: “He is worthy of your granting him this, 5 for he loves our nation and he himself built our synagogue.” 6 So Jesus went with them. But when he was not far from the house, the army officer had already sent friends to say to him: “Sir, do not bother, for I am not worthy to have you come under my roof. 7 That is why I did not consider myself worthy to come to you. But say the word, and let my servant be healed. 8 For I too am a man placed under authority, having soldiers under me, and I say to this one, ‘Go!’ and he goes, and to another, ‘Come!’ and he comes, and to my slave, ‘Do this!’ and he does it..”
I ask you this, in the above account, who spoke to Jesus, the Army officer himself or the elders of the Jews? Are the "Elders of the Jews" and the "Army officer" the same person?