Job doesn't say that he will see God before his death. That's something you added into your reading of the passage. Your reading requires that verses 25 and 26 be divorced from each other, entirely unrelated. These words are obviously part of the same thought: God lives, he shall return, and Job will die, yet in his flesh he is going to see God when he returns.
Job 19:25-27 KJV
(25) For I know that my redeemer liveth, and that he shall stand at the latter day upon the earth:
(26) And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God:
(27) Whom I shall see for myself, and mine eyes shall behold, and not another; though my reins be consumed within me.
Verse 26 was not given in the sense of having foreknowledge that God was about to appear... if you remember, God entered the conversation rather abruptly. Look at verse 26, because "yet in my flesh shall I see God" is predicated by the condition of "And thou after my skin worms destroy this body...."
Thus, verse 26 is not fulfilled until after worms consume the body of Job.
The entire passage, verses 25-27, is a future prophecy of God's visible setting foot on earth, and his own resurrection.
My reading of the verse encompasess both passages. As already stated Job stated
"For I know that my redeemer liveth, and that he shall stand at the latter day upon the earth: And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God". Job clearly stated that he knows his redeemer is alive, that the redeemer will stand in the last days
after his flesh is gone
YET in his flesh he will see God, Job states he will see God in his flesh as in he will see God whilst he is alive.
Again you claim Job said "God lives", Job did NOT say this, Job stated his redeemer lives. To claim that that the redeemer is the "God" of v26 is an assumption. Jesus was the redeemer, you belief that Jesus is almighty God thus you assume that the redeemer is God and that this is what Job was referring to in v26. I believe the Jesus is NOT almighty God but is the redeemer, thus the verse is understood without the assumptions you place on the verse, I understand the scripture for how it plainly reads, you do not.
Why this objection?... "Man cannot see God?" Perhaps man cannot see the invisible God, as he exists outside of earth, but God can be seen by the naked eye when he wills it to be. Exodus 33:11, "And the LORD spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend" and again,
As I've said before you knowledge of the scriptures is elementary. NOT trash talking just an observation.
Moses NEVER saw Gods face to face literally, Exodus is talking about seeing God figuratively, Gods glory is too great for man to see. Exodus 33:11 states "Jehovah spake unto Moses face to face", NOT ten verse later Moses asks to see Jehovah's glory and God himself states,
"I will make all my goodness pass before your face, and I will declare before you the name of Jehovah; and I will favor the one whom I favor, and I will show mercy to the one to whom I show mercy.” But he added: “You cannot see my face, for no man can see me and live.”(Exo 33:18-20). God no doubt spoke to Moses
through an Angel. Their interactions were so close and real that it was as if God was speaking with Moses face to face.
On another occasion God spoke to the whole camp of Israel from a cloud, "And Jehovah said to Moses:
“Look! I am coming to you in a dark cloud, so that the people may hear when I speak with you and so that they may always put faith in you as well. (Exo 19:9), God did NOT appear to the nation of Israel but spoke to them by means of this cloud that represented him, yet what does the Bible say about this interaction? It states this,
"Jehovah spoke face-to-face with you [the nation of Israel] in the mountain, out of the fire. 5 I [Moses] was standing between Jehovah and you at that time.." (Deuteronomy 5:4, 5) They saw God face-to-face, this does NOT mean that they literally saw God since the verse cleary shows they didn't, they only saw a cloud.
Even the NT proclaims that Moses spoke not to God, but to an Angel, with this Angel no doubt being the representative of God. Acts 7:37,38 states
“This is the Moses..This is the one who came to be among the congregation in the wilderness with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Siʹnai", v53 goes onto say that the nation of Israel through Moses
"received the Law as transmitted by angels but have not kept it". Yet, when we read the accounts in the OT it states Jehovah gave Moses the Law. Since the bible cannot contradict itself the Angel must have been representatives of God and is thus spoken of as God since he is carrying out the actions for God.
I suspect it is because the concept of God visible in the flesh seems too dangerous for you to allow...
Its not too dangerous for me to allow its just that the context of the Bible shows that it cannot be the case.
However, if you can explain how Job can fulfill his prophecy of "
Without his skin and body being destroyed by worms, and his reins being consumed within him, then I could see how "yet in my flesh shall I see God" would have already been fulfilled. That event was spoken in the context of total destruction of Job and dissolution after death. I haven't heard anyone explain it as you did, and as such I suspect that your explanation owes more to avoiding the equivalence that Job foreshadowed of God and He whom we now call Christ.
I don't understand you question? Please rephrase it so I can better understand it. I think your problem again lies with your old English translation, this is how the verse convey the writers words:
NET: My heart grows faint within me.
NLT: I am overwhelmed at the thought!
NWT: But deep inside I feel overwhelmed!
NASV: My heart faints within me!
ASV: My heart is consumed within me.