The Trinity

The Trinity


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popsthebuilder

New member
Hi pops, so you believe Jesus had only the breath of life and not the Holy Spirit as his Spirit?
What?!?! Uhm...no.

The Holy Spirit was in the womb of Mary and Elizabeth.

Explain my confusion amiably please, that I might hear and know where I seemed wrong or am wrong. I did agree, mostly, with a single post that I think you are referencing.

peace

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Rosenritter

New member
Although this was not my orginal argument I have to disagree with you on that.

Hebrews does discredit Jesus is God, being part of a Trinity.

Hebrews does not discredit Jesus as being part of a Trinity. I'm not trying to defend so-called Trinity doctrine, I'm just being matter-of-fact about it. It's not about Trinity, it's about Jesus being the Son of God, which is our God, the same God that created all things in Genesis, the One God. I'll do my best to explain without being overly wordy.

Hebrews was written after Jesus ascension, it mentions in Hebrews 1:9 that Jesus HAS a God, God does not have a God. Jesus does, thus he cannot be the God whom is his God nor can he have a God since he is God.

Where is it written that "God does not have a God?" I heard you say that, but I haven't seen the scripture say that. On earth, we are told God was manifest in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16). Sometimes a person has themselves as their own god. However, God is his own God. When people speak of Jesus, it invokes our memory of the gospels, of God manifest in the flesh, and in that context most certainly God is his God. Jesus did not deny God, and he was not godless,

Secondly, Hebrews 1:8 shows us what type of God Jesus is, which I will explain... Jesus must be understood as God in the same sense that that Israelite King was God, that being, not in the almighty sense, but in the secondary sense such as Psalms 45...

This same book of Hebrews says that Jesus obtains his right to rule by inheritance, that his name is superior to angels. I am only aware of two classes of spirit being in scripture: God, the creator, and his angels, the created. It is very specific that Jesus is no angel, and then it invokes "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever." It is very specific that Jesus is not an angel, but that rather the created angels worship him. He was above the angels, but made lower than them that he might suffer death. Again, the only spirits I know of are God and his angels.

I do not deny what the scriptures actually saying regards to Melchizadek, I simply claim they have a symbolic meaning. Scripture also states that Jesus is a lamb, would it be correct to claim Jesus is a literal sheep or can writers and speakers use language in a symbolic sense.

When Jesus is called the Lamb, it is a reference to his sacrifice for our sins. We needn't look for further meaning. But when Paul speaks of Melchizadek what else could he mean, and why would he use such constant rephrasing unless that is what he really meant?

Hebrews 7:1-3 KJV
(1) For this Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him;
(2) To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace;
(3) Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually.

One might reason that a priest can bless on behalf of God without being God. One might also reason that perhaps "King of Peace" might be a coincidence with the promised title of "Prince of Peace" in Isaiah 9:6, which calls Jesus "the Mighty God, the everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace." But why would Paul specifically focus on "without father, without mother, without descent" and then further "having neither beginning of days, nor end of life?"

That's pretty specific. Even if one's ancestry were unknown, or insignificant, you don't say that person is without beginning of days or end of life. Even further reinforcing this theme, Paul says that this Melchisadec that received tithes of Abraham abideth a priest continually. As Paul speaks it sounds as if he means that this Melchisadec did not die, does not die, and still is. These are the attributes that Paul associates with "the Son of God."

Is the "Son of God" defined by having an unknown ancestry? Or by merely being very old and no one noticed when you slipped away, so you live in legend? Paul implies that it means something much stronger. Reading forward a few verses, this is further reinforced that he really did mean "endless life" when he spoke of Melchisadec.

Hebrews 7:15-17 KJV
(15) And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
(16) Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
(17) For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

No, God did not appear before Abraham or any man for that matter, he sent his representatives, speaking through angels. When you receive a letter in the post do you tell your friends and family "a letter invited me to so and so wedding" or do you say "Mark invited me to his wedding". It is not foreign, even in the Bible, to show representatives of someone speaking as the sender themselves.

Please could you tell me so I can better understand your position, specifically, who were the three men in the account found in Genesis 18:2 ?

Specifically, God in the flesh and two angels, in the form of men.

We know they were of physical form because they had feet to be washed, and received bread, calf, butter, and milk prepared by Sarah. And where previously it said "they said unto him" it is specifically the LORD who chides Sarah for laughing at the promise. There is no need to insert "the LORD" at that point unless it was actually the LORD.

Advance to Genesis 18:16 and the men rise up and Abraham accompanies them as they look to Sodom. Now the LORD is speaking again to Abraham, and the conversation that follows is one on one, not the style that one would have with one and three mere representatives. There is no reason to think this is not a literal conversation, and if God meant to speak with him by a vision, why would you send representatives just to stand idly by? In the absence of any special mention that this was not a conversation with his visitors, we should not make unusual assumptions.

So when Abraham bargains with the LORD (and again, it continues to say LORD, not "the men") now it tells us that the LORD went his way, as soon as he had left communing with Abraham (verse 33). Those aren't the words you would use to describe your representatives leaving. It says he was communing with Abraham.

So in chapter 19, we have two angels arriving at Sodom. Three men went out to look upon Sodom, the LORD speaks and bargains and communes with Abraham, and the three men leave. But who arrives in Sodom? Two men, two angels we are told.

Those three men = the LORD plus two angels.


And for the sake of consistency it never says that Lot "communed with the LORD" or that the LORD was speaking to Lot. If indeed the LORD was not actually present talking to Abraham in the flesh earlier, but merely "the LORD" is said to speak by representatives, why would we not see that also in chapter 19 in the case of Lot? These are the same representatives as before, minus One. Emphasis on the capital designation in One, as Hear O Israel, the LORD your God is One LORD..

For what reasons do you see the titles father and son applied to Jesus and the Father as symbolic. The scriptures are clear in relation to Jesus that he was created as shown in Col 1:15. Other verses such as Rev 3:14 and Prov 8:22 make it clear who created him, namely God the Father.

(Colossians 1:15) "..He [Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.."

What translation are you using? Regardless, you omitted the relevant context. He is not the firstborn in relation to being created, but in being raised from the dead. And that same passage tells us that this "firstborn of every creature" is the Creator Himself who created all things, by himself and for himself.

Colossians 1:15-18 KJV
(15) Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
(16) For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
(17) And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
(18) And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead;that in all things he might have the preeminence.

It does not say he was created, quite the opposite. He was "before all things" it says, and "all things were created by him."

(Revelation 3:14) “..To the angel of the congregation in La·o·di·ceʹa write: These are the things that [Jesus] the Amen says, [who is] the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God.."

Jesus was the beginning of the creation by God, and as your reference to Colossians prepared us for already, He was the one doing the creating. This is also emphasized by the very specific titles of God that Jesus claims for himself, titles that specifically invoke "besides which there is no other God" and "that is my name" and "I shall not share my glory with another."

This title is used three times in Isaiah, as the unique title of God,

Isaiah 41:4 KJV
(4) Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he.

Isaiah 44:6 KJV(6) Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

Isaiah 48:11-13 KJV
(11) For mine own sake, even for mine own sake, will I do it: for how should my name be polluted? and I will not give my glory unto another.
(12) Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.
(
13) Mine hand also hath laid the foundation of the earth, and my right hand hath spanned the heavens: when I call unto them, they stand up together.

And four times in Revelation, as the rightful identification of Jesus.

Revelation 1:11 KJV
(11) Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

Revelation 1:17-18 KJV
(17) And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
(18) I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.

Revelation 2:8 KJV
(8) And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write; These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;

Revelation 22:13-16 KJV
(13) I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.
(14) Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
(15) For without are dogs, and sorcerers, and whoremongers, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loveth and maketh a lie.
(16) I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.

That's seven times in total, sort of a nice significant number. Revelation owns the name just as much if not more than Isaiah. Yet never is that name used in an indecisive manner. Jesus was not ignorant of Isaiah when he appeared before John in this vision.

(Proverbs 8:22) "..Jehovah produced me as the beginning of his way, The earliest of his achievements of long ago.."

The topic of Proverbs 8 is personified wisdom. Not a man, god, or angel. It introduces her at the beginning of the chapter, it reinforces that personification in the beginning of the next chapter too. You'd be applying that passage outside its intended context to apply it to an actual person. But if you were to pick an actual person, why would you choose Jesus? His name is nowhere in that chapter, and it even identifies the subject as female. Jesus is always presented as male, and the created angels are called "Sons of God." Not daughters.

Proverbs 8:1-2 KJV
(1) Doth not wisdom cry? and understanding put forth her voice?
(2) She standeth in the top of high places, by the way in the places of the paths.

Proverbs 9:1-2 KJV
(1) Wisdom hath builded her house, she hath hewn out her seven pillars:
(2) She hath killed her beasts; she hath mingled her wine; she hath also furnished her table.
 
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Rosenritter

New member
No I said the 'book' was exactly that a book full of MENS words NOT Gods - The 'spirit of God' has been maintained not the WORD of God.

Psalms 138:2 KJV
(2) I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.

Matthew 24:35 KJV
(35) Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

Mark 13:31 KJV
(31) Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.

Luke 21:33 KJV
(33) Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.

.... before you say anything, I recognize the irony of using the word to claim that the word shall not pass away. However, unless one wants to claim that those passages are falsely inserted into the text, it seems to tell us that the spirit of God guards his word above his name, and that he has no intention of that word passing away.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Keypurr and I share some similar beliefs. I tried to tell you earlier you might be misunderstanding him.

I think Keypurr believes that the person who is typically called Jesus was a spirit prior coming to earth. When coming to earth he "became flesh", I do not believe Keypurr understands the scriptures to mean that Jesus dwelt in a human form but rather he became fully human.

Correct.

The true Son of God is his first creation, the spirit son. This son was used by God to create all things in heaven and earth. This spirit son came to dwell in Jesus, who is the body prepared for him.

Jesus was born to Mary, he did not exist until then. I see the spirit son as the logos in John 1. It was when Jesus was baptized with the logos God declared that this was his son. The logos is a created form of God, it was given the fullness of the Father. But he was sent by his God to bring light.


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keypurr

Well-known member
If there is only one true God how would it be possible for God to have a God?

It is not possible. Jesus Christ is Lord not God.


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Rosenritter

New member
Keypurr, It's a manner of speaking that presumes a certain perspective. On earth, he was in the role of a man, and within that role he is obedient to God. In contrast, if God on earth was godless, he would have acted out of His character; or if he had said "I have no God" he would have been denying His own existence.

If there is only one true God how would it be possible for God to have a God?

It is not possible. Jesus Christ is Lord not God.


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keypurr

Well-known member
Keypurr, It's a manner of speaking that presumes a certain perspective. On earth, he was in the role of a man, and within that role he is obedient to God. In contrast, if God on earth was godless, he would have acted out of His character; or if he had said "I have no God" he would have been denying His own existence.

God sent his Son, not himself.

Jesus was a man, the logos IN HIM is a created FORM of God, not God. Jesus told you that there is ONLY ONE GOD, the Father.

To find truth we should listen to him.

Jesus has a God over him, the only true God that sent him.

I do not see a three person God in scriptures.




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keypurr

Well-known member
Heb 1:1-3 tells you that there is no Trinity for Christ is a creation.
Col 1:15 confirms that.


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NWL

Active member
Hebrews does not discredit Jesus as being part of a Trinity. I'm not trying to defend so-called Trinity doctrine, I'm just being matter-of-fact about it. It's not about Trinity, it's about Jesus being the Son of God, which is our God, the same God that created all things in Genesis, the One God. I'll do my best to explain without being overly wordy.

No but the statements regarding Jesus do deny Jesus is part of the trinity. No Bible book is regarding the trinity since the trinity is not taught in the Bible. Learned trinitarian claim that the trinity can be understood from the scriptures, but no learned trinitarian I've ever spoken to has expressed that its taught.

Where is it written that "God does not have a God?" I heard you say that, but I haven't seen the scripture say that. On earth, we are told God was manifest in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16). Sometimes a person has themselves as their own god. However, God is his own God. When people speak of Jesus, it invokes our memory of the gospels, of God manifest in the flesh, and in that context most certainly God is his God. Jesus did not deny God, and he was not godless,

Your reasoning here is plain bad. First of all you state God is his own God but Jesus made it clear the Father was his God (1 Peter 1:3), the trinity doctrine teaches that Jesus is not the Father but a separate person from the Father. Therefore your rebuttal doesn't even get off the ground.

Secondly, to state that since the Bible doesn't say "God does not have a God" doesn't rule out that God can have a God is like me saying that since the Bible doesn't state God is a flying spaghetti monster who lives on the moon and eats moon dust for supper and is married to Mary and fathered children with her in heaven, that it doesn't rule out the prospect of those things being true.

From the vast majority of peoples understanding of the bible, anyone, including a ten year old will tell you that almighty God cannot be God and yet have a God over him. Just because the Bible doesn't directly state something doesn't mean it is not true.

Please show me from the bible where these statements that were made by you were derived from:
  • "Sometimes a person has themselves as their own god"
  • "God is his own God"
This same book of Hebrews says that Jesus obtains his right to rule by inheritance, that his name is superior to angels. I am only aware of two classes of spirit being in scripture: God, the creator, and his angels, the created. It is very specific that Jesus is no angel, and then it invokes "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever." It is very specific that Jesus is not an angel, but that rather the created angels worship him. He was above the angels, but made lower than them that he might suffer death. Again, the only spirits I know of are God and his angels.

The term angel simply means messenger, there was no word for "Angel" as we understand the word today. I don't even think your own reasoning since in your post you have no issue with understanding the Jehovah in the OT, who appeared to Abraham, as an angel, but now you seperate them and say there are two classes.

The fact that Jesus receives an inheritance should firstly tell you he can't be God since Almighty God doesn't need to receive an inheritance because he already owns all things. Regardless, the inheritance Jesus receives is in regards to him being the "firstborn", the context of the surrounding verses clearly show this.

(Hebrews 1:4-6) So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs.. 5 For example, to which one of the angels did God ever say: “You are my son; today I have become your father”? And again: “I will become his father, and he will become my son”? 6 But when he again brings his Firstborn into the inhabited earth, he says: “And let all of God’s angels do obeisance to him.”

The act of proskuneó/worship/obeisance given to Jesus was in regards to him being the "firstborn" and not because he was God. Since Jesus was the firstborn he, out of all the angels, inherited more power and authority than the rest of them, much like a firstborn in a Jewish family would inherited more than the rest of his household since he held the "right of the firstborn" (see Deut 21:17). Look at v4 of the text, Jesus became better than the angels to what extent and for what reason??? He became better than the angels "as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs". Are you trying to say that Almighty God is ONLY superior to the angels simply due to his name being better than theirs!? I think not. The verse makes no sense with the understanding Jesus was almighty God in the flesh here. But is it possible that Jesus, was a spirit, like the angels are spirits and who is separate from God ontologically, better than the angels to the extent that he inherited a name better than theirs? Does that reasoning fit in with Hebrews 1:4? It sure does!

When Jesus is called the Lamb, it is a reference to his sacrifice for our sins. We needn't look for further meaning. But when Paul speaks of Melchizadek what else could he mean, and why would he use such constant rephrasing unless that is what he really meant?

Hebrews 7:1-3 KJV

Re-read what is said:

(Hebrews 7:1-3) "..For this Mel•chizʹe•dek, king of Saʹlem, priest of the Most High God, met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings and blessed him, 2 and Abraham gave him a tenth of everything. First, his name is translated “King of Righteousness,” and then also king of Saʹlem, that is, “King of Peace.” 3 In being fatherless, motherless, without genealogy, having neither a beginning of days nor an end of life, but being made like the Son of God, he remains a priest for all time.."

How about the explanation I gave, which the vast majority of the scholarly community understand the text to mean, that when it says "fatherless, motherless, without genealogy, having neither a beginning of days nor an end of life" it was in reference to there being no records of any of those things stated.

Moreover the text applies the fatherless, motherless, without genealogy, having neither a beginning of days nor an end of life statement as belonging to Melchizedek, nowhere in the sciptures is it applied to Jesus. Read the account, since you're obviously reading incorrectly, as the account never applied that epithet to Jesus. The only corolation between Jesus and the King of salem is that they both remain a priest for all time. The fact that v11 states that Jesus is "another" priest should tell you that God was not that priest back in the OT, if he were then he wouldn't be another priest but the same priest. Moreover, since you believe God was Melchizedek in the OT, and regarding Melchizedek it says he would remain priest forever, then why would Jesus need become another Melchizedek?? Unless! Melchizedek was simply a human, and the things said about him were in reference to there being any records of the things mentioned to in Hebrews 7:1-3 as I've already stated.

Specifically, God in the flesh and two angels, in the form of men.

Those three men = the LORD plus two angels.

If indeed the LORD was not actually present talking to Abraham in the flesh earlier, but merely "the LORD" is said to speak by representatives, why would we not see that also in chapter 19 in the case of Lot?

Thats the thing, those two angels who go down to Sodom are spoken of as Jehovah, thus your reasoning fails. YOU need to explain why the Angels are referred to as Jehovah and reevaluate who those three men are.

Gen 18:20,21 states he Jehovah was going to Sodom
Gen 18:22 states the two other “men/messengers” left for Sodom but “Jehovah remained with Abraham”.
Gen 18:33 states Jehovah “went his way”.
Gen 19:1 states The two messengers arrive at Sodom
Gen 19:13 states the Messengers said that Jehovah had sent them to destroy Sodom
Gen 19:14 states Lot stated that "Jehovah" was about to destroy city
Gen 19:16 states due to Jehovah’s compassion the men seized hold of lots hand”
Gen 19:18 has Lot calling the two messengers Jehovah
Gen 19:21 has Jehovah talking back to Lot responding to the request made in v18
Gen 19:24 states Jehovah destroyed S&G by Jehovah in the heavens
 

NWL

Active member
What translation are you using? Regardless, you omitted the relevant context. He is not the firstborn in relation to being created, but in being raised from the dead. And that same passage tells us that this "firstborn of every creature" is the Creator Himself who created all things, by himself and for himself.

I used the NWT, it reads the same way as most other bible translations of Col 1:15. The translation you used is the one that deviates from the norm. And no, I did not leave out the context, you simply don't know how to segregate writing.

(Colossians 1:15-18) "..He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; 16 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist, 18 and he is the head of the body, the congregation. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that he might become the one who is first in all things.."

You cannot simply take two entirely different statements and claim both of the statements are linked simply due to the same word "firstborn" being used, its a ridiculous claim. Both uses of firstborn are separate statements, both statements show what the context is regarding and are even separated by a series of different statements all of which are not linked to each other but are revelations regarding Jesus.

Col 1:15 is in regards to Jesus being firstborn in all creation, as it simply says, and Col 1:18 is in regards to Jesus being the firstborn from the dead. You picked a translation that uses the term creature, which is a bad translation of the Greek word ktiseōs. The context in Col 1(the actual context this time) refers to all creation and not simply physocal creation as the translation "creature" would suggest. Look at v16,17 and v18 all of which encompasses all things in heaven and on earth, both invisible and visible, including non-tangible things. Thus the translation creature is not fitting. The term "Creation" however fits perfectly, thus, most translations render ktiseōs to mean creation.

The fact that Jesus is firsborn of the group creation, means that by default he MUST be part of that group to be called firstborn of it. You cannot be firstborn of a group and NOT be part of it. For example you referred to Col 1:18 which states Jesus was the firstborn of/from the dead. Undoubtedly Jesus HAD to be dead or at some point been dead to be called firstborn of the dead.

My family name is Nowell, you Rosenritter can't be the firstborn of my family since you're not part of my family, only members of my family could ever hold the titles, the firstborn Nowell to my parents.

Again, to be firstborn of a group you HAVE to be part of it. There isn't a single example biblical or non biblical where anyone/anything is the firstborn of something and yet NOT part of the group they're firstborn of. This Jesus, who is the firstborn of creation, by definition, MUST be part of the group he's firstborn of, therefore Jesus is part of creation. This is an irrefutable truth.

It does not say he was created, quite the opposite. He was "before all things" it says, and "all things were created by him."

As I've now explained, the fact that Jesus is the firstborn of creation, demands that he be part of the group he's firstborn of. Jesus is part of creation, he was at some stage, according to Col 1:15, created. The Father created Jesus, all things were then created through Jesus, by the Father as Col 1:16 along with Hebrews 1:1,2 and 1 Cor 8:6 state.

[/COLOR]Jesus was the beginning of the creation by God, and as your reference to Colossians prepared us for already, He was the one doing the creating. This is also emphasized by the very specific titles of God that Jesus claims for himself, titles that specifically invoke "besides which there is no other God" and "that is my name" and "I shall not share my glory with another."

This reasoning makes no sense when reading Rev 3:14. The text says that Jesus was the beginning of the creation of God, how do you get this means "Jesus was the one doing the creating"?

If I were to say, "this robot that is self aware, having artificial intelligence was the beginning of the invention by Rosenritter" does that communicate that the Robot was the inventor or you, namely Rosenritter, were?

I'm confused why how you cant see the verse stating "Jesus was the beginning of the creation by God"?? Are you claiming Jesus was the beginner or author of creation according to Rev 3:14 and not the literal beginning? You can't use Col 1:15 to explain Rev 3:14 without explaining excatly how it refers. Saying "Jesus did the creating in Col 1:15 therefore he is the beginning of the creation by God" doesn't mean anything.

This title is used three times in Isaiah, as the unique title of God,

I don't see how the scriptures you showed in Isaiah, or Revelation holds any relevance to explaining Jesus being part of the created order as shown in Col 1:15 or Rev 3:14.

The topic of Proverbs 8 is personified wisdom. Not a man, god, or angel. It introduces her at the beginning of the chapter, it reinforces that personification in the beginning of the next chapter too. You'd be applying that passage outside its intended context to apply it to an actual person. But if you were to pick an actual person, why would you choose Jesus? His name is nowhere in that chapter, and it even identifies the subject as female. Jesus is always presented as male, and the created angels are called "Sons of God." Not daughters.

It is true that in Hebrew, which assigns gender to its nouns, the word for "wisdom" is in the feminine gender. This would continue to be the case even though wisdom is personified and so would not rule out wisdom's being used figuratively to represent God's firstborn Son. For instance, the Greek word for "love" in the expression "God is love" (1 John 4:8) is also in the feminine gender but that does not make God feminine.

Furthermore, when used figuratively (i.e., God is a rock, fortress, love, etc. ) words in NT Greek and OT Hebrew do not necessarily agree with the gender of the person they are describing.

Notice the figurative use of the neuter “Lamb” in Rev 5:6,12 and 6:1 for Jesus. (or “the Light” John 8:12). The masculine “Jesus” and “Christ,” etc. of his literal name and descriptions show that he is a male person despite of the neuter articles and pronouns that must be used in the NT Greek to agree with the neuter “Lamb” (or “Light”).

In Proverbs 8 we see that ‘amon’ (‘Master Worker’) is masculine and yet it is describing the feminine “Wisdom.” Perhaps more to the point is 1 Cor, 1:24 where Christ is called the power (masc.) and the WISDOM (fem.) of God.

The reason why I believe Jesus is being spoken of is because many, if not all the things said regarding wisdom, (when it starts speaking of wisdom in the first person in Prov 8) parallel things regarding Jesus. Furthermore scripture directly states Jesus is Gods wisdom (1 Cor 1:24).

Please explain to me, if proverbs 8:22 is simply talking about Gods literal wisdom personified how it was produced according to the verse? Are not Gods attributes, that are part of who God is, just as eternal as God is?
 
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NWL

Active member
Please excuse my sloppy ignorance in the matter, but are you a JW?

I am one of JW's.

I don't know too much of their beliefs, but had noticed you speaking of them.

I must admit that your words near exactly mimic what I would have wrote myself(minus the multitude of grammatical/ spelling errors, of course.)

I hope this isn't you saying I'm the one with the multitude of grammatical and spelling errors :cry:

There's one truth of the bible, some learn it themselves, I found it by studying with JW's and found what they teach to fit the bible perfectly, no twisting of scriptures, no assumed meanings etc. We JW's take the scriptures for what it says and not what we want them to say.

For example, to name a few:

One God, who is the father - 1 Cor 8:6
Jesus was created - Rev 3:14, Col 1:15
Dead people are simply dead and are not conscious - Eccl 9:5, John 11:11
Future Paradise earth prospect as originally planned with Adam - Psalms 37:29, Matthew 5:5
Soul not eternal - Matthew 10:28, Ezekiel 18:4
Jesus was raised a spirit person and not in the flesh - 1 Corinthians 15:45, 1 Peter 3:18

Regardless of a sect or denomination, I cannot deny the truth that your words do say. I look forward to further conversation with you in the future, GOD willing.

If you looked into the teachings of JW's I think you'd find lots of usual or interesting information regarding our understanding of the scriptures. Look forward to reading and hearing from you friend.
 
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Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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What is wrong with the NWT? Let's see if you can use your own reasoning or if you repeat the same google assertions most people make.

Not at all... It plainly states that Jesus is Jehovah... care to see?

@NWL

Who is the subject of these verses?

Romans 10:9 For if you publicly declare with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one exercises faith for righteousness, but with the mouth one makes public declaration+ for salvation.
11 For the scripture says: “No one who rests his faith on him will be disappointed.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek. There is the same Lord over all, who is rich* toward all those calling on him.

https://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/romans/10/

Who's "Name" are these verses saying to "Publicly Declare"?

 

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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What is wrong with the NWT? Let's see if you can use your own reasoning or if you repeat the same google assertions most people make.

This isn't difficult is it? In Romans 10:9-12 ... who are we to declare "Lord"? Who is the "subject" of Romans 10:9-12?

You were fast to defend the NWT... and thus... I'm quoting it word for word... right off of your JW web sight.

Who is the WHO? Are you stumbling and fumbling NWL?

Who is the subject of these verses?

Romans 10:9 For if you publicly declare with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one exercises faith for righteousness, but with the mouth one makes public declaration+ for salvation.
11 For the scripture says: “No one who rests his faith on him will be disappointed.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek. There is the same Lord over all, who is rich* toward all those calling on him.

https://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/romans/10/

Who's "Name" are these verses saying to "Publicly Declare"?
 

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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[MENTION=15324]NWL[/MENTION] is dropping some "long" posts and weaving in scripture... but... are they... st-st-st... stumped by #9177 ?

I guess I'll check back tomorrow...

TaTa for Now NWL

- [MENTION=18375]Evil.Eye.<(I)>[/MENTION]

Bets? Will NWL avoid... change the subject... pretend they never saw this?

Or answer honestly and head on... per their chosen "translation"?
 

NWL

Active member
This isn't difficult is it? In Romans 10:9-12 ... who are we to declare "Lord"? Who is the "subject" of Romans 10:9-12?

You were fast to defend the NWT... and thus... I'm quoting it word for word... right off of your JW web sight.

The verse is in regards to Jesus.


Who is the WHO? Are you stumbling and fumbling NWL?

Easy Evil.Eye easy, patience. I only saw your post about five to ten minutes prior to posting this. I regularly keep my browser and computer on so may appear online even when I'm not.

Romans 10:9 is in regards to declaring Jesus.
 
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