The Trinity

The Trinity


  • Total voters
    121

God's Truth

New member
Hi! :) Are you saying that Jesus is the father?

And, if only the three are one and they are all God, then I have a question, how does the following work?

John 17

Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

Rosenritter is a modalist. He does not believe the three exist at the same time.

Jesus is God the Father with a physical body, and there are three, and the three do exist at the same time.
 

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
I don't think I said that. I'm not sure how you would have derived that from such a statement.

Who created all things?

New Testament tells us Jesus is the creator of all. John 1:1-3, "All things were made by him..."
Old Testament tells us God is the creator of all. Genesis 1:1 "God created the heaven and the earth."

Simple math would lead you to think Jesus is God. Also confirmed by John 1:1, "The Word was God."
Additional statements specify there is only one God. Mark 12:29, "The LORD your God is one God."

Same passage specifies that God is more properly represented as One, not many, not two, not three. (Mark 12:29 above).
Further passages emphasizes that different names that are also called God are properly represented as one. See 1 John 5:7, "These three are one."

Now if you can show me a passage in the Bible that preaches a Trinity, that comes out and says "This one is three" or "thou shalt not confuse the persons of God with each other" I'd be interested in seeing that. If you can even find a passage that says that there are "multiple persons of God" or such it would be interesting.

Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, - Matthew 28:19 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew28:19&version=NKJV

Because I'm still looking at the only passage that refers to God as a person, using the word person, and the case it chose was singular, not plural. Hebrews 1:3, Jesus is "the express image of his person."

If someone wants to make contention, please show me a biblical case. The Trinity isn't biblical, it's a man-made model. If it was biblical you would find it defined in the Bible.

e682ffe05c9112f7243802216ef8c2dd.jpg


effe1744decbedb5ee4c6a8bc94e2bdf.jpg


45b3fbd5b2e158e8ba8dda662841e833.jpg


According to the Granville-Sharp rule, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are three distinct persons in that verse, yet it says "name," singular. One name, three persons. If that's not an indication that God is triune, I don't know what is.

More pictures:

1f16137c44a03aa4a832d9e6a989271d.jpg


920f62d0abc9ff004d86e8aadef22ad4.jpg
 
Last edited:

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
Jesus is the Word who says if you do not eat him you will not be saved.

If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever, John 6:51. This bread is Jesus’ flesh, which he will give for the life of the world, John 6:53.

Unless we eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, we have no life in us. Jesus tells us the truth, if anyone obeys his word, he will never see death, John 8:51.
Sounds like the Covenant of Law, to me. GT, are Christians under law or under grace?
 

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
Grace is that Jesus sanctifies us by our faith, our faith is HOW WE ENTER. That faith IS alone when you do not have right action with it.

See James 2:14-24.
GT, are Christians under Law or under Grace?

What group of people was the book of James written to?
 

Rosenritter

New member
Permit me to respond by way of question and analogy. Is my hand my foot? Is my head my hand? Can all of these (head hand and foot) be the same person? Yes, they can. Could this be confusing to something small enough that has only seen a small part at any time? Yes, it could.

When I went to check for specific instances, it seemed that "The Father" is the term Jesus used to refer to God in heaven, but it wasn't used as an address for God before that (not without counting Isaiah 9:6, which would give the Son of God that name as well.) So not sure what your specific question is per John 17, but do you have any thing that would prevent God from being in more than one place at the same time?

In other words, is there a problem for God to be both in heaven, and on earth, at once?
Or is it possible for one part of God to operate with complete knowledge and power, and another part with limited knowledge and power?

Because for both of the above I could illustrate how even your physical body could do such. God has Godlike capabilities.


Hi! :) Are you saying that Jesus is the father?

And, if only the three are one and they are all God, then I have a question, how does the following work?

John 17

Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
 

Rosenritter

New member
In Genesis he is speaking to his angels. By the time you get to Day Six the angels are already part of the equation (and would also be creations in the image of God.) We are told elsewhere that the angels shouted for joy to see the world made. God does talk to his angels - we even have passages where he lets them decide what actions he will take to deal with problems on earth. If US President says "Let's pass this executive order into law" he is speaking to more than himself, even if he is the only person involved in the action. If US President says "Let's invade Canada" he makes the decision, but orders multiple soldiers into action. In both cases he speaks for the sake of his audience, but the plural is because he represents (leads) many.

In those passages in John there is nothing that makes God multiple people or personalities. Jesus does speak in analogies and symbolism. He speaks of God as "the Father" in heaven and as "God as his Father" when we also know that he is God and as God has no actual father. He calls himself "the bread of life" and says that to live we must eat his flesh and drink his blood.

1) Does Jesus come out of God? yes, as God born into flesh (with limitations on experience and power) that would be accurate
2) Does Jesus come forth out of the Father? As Jesus uses "the Father" to represent God in heaven, and as Jesus is the Logos (the explanation in front of us) of whom God is, as the visible image of God, then also yes. If you have seen Jesus, you have seen the Father.
3) Did Jesus go back to the Father? Yes, he did. He ascended to heaven, and as such there was no more Son of God on earth. As "Son of God" means "God in the flesh" that title ceases to be applicable when God is no longer in the flesh among us.

Are Jesus and the Father the same? It depends on what you mean by "same." If you mean "the same person in character and personality" then I would say yes. The different designations are used for our relation to God. "The Father" is always "in heaven", "the Son of God" walked the earth with us, "the Holy Spirit" is Spirit (and not manifested in flesh) by definition, but works with us on earth invisibly. At least that seems to be the pattern. If you know of exceptions I would like to see them.



So, you're really focused on the ONE GOD, which is absolutely correct. There is but ONE GOD.

But, why does God say this? To whom is God speaking?
Gen. 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:

And why did Jesus say He came out from God, and came forth from the Father?
John 16:27-28 For the Father himself loveth you, because ye have loved me, and have believed that I came out from God. I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father.

And why does Jesus say of the Father, "we will come unto him, and make our abode with him" in this verse? How can that be if the Father and the Son are the same? And how can Jesus send the Comforter (Holy Spirit) if they are the same?
John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.
 
Last edited:

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
In Genesis he is speaking to his angels. By the time you get to Day Six the angels are already part of the equation (and would also be creations in the image of God.) We are told elsewhere that the angels shouted for joy to see the world made. God does talk to his angels - we even have passages where he lets them decide what actions he will take to deal with problems on earth.

In those passages in John there is nothing that makes God multiple people or personalities.

"Let us make man in Our Image"

So man was made in the image of angels too?

No. This is the origin of the "royal we."

Or do you think that Moses, being very well educated, made a grammatical mistake in the very first verse of the Bible?

"In the beginning, Gods (Elohim) created the heavens and the earth."

1013b71598e5546df1d4bd6527eefefd.jpg


"Elohim" (Strong's 430) is the plural form of "God."

"Elowahh" (Strong's 433) is the singular.

"El" (Strong's 410) is also singular.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Ah, sorry for the lash-back.

Technically, "Unitarian" should mean "belief in One God" which should include most everyone here. But in practical application Unitarian really means "I believe in One God as long as Jesus isn't that God."

I would be happy if labels were simply abandoned here. That's more of my point than anything else. Isn't is sufficient to ask:

"Do you believe Jesus is the Son of God, the creator of all things, come in the flesh, who died and perished for our sins, rose again, and will return again to judge the world?"


No, I usually don't have trouble reading, but I do have trouble with these labels. Excuse me if I used the wrong one.
 

God's Truth

New member
Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, - Matthew 28:19 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew28:19&version=NKJV



e682ffe05c9112f7243802216ef8c2dd.jpg


effe1744decbedb5ee4c6a8bc94e2bdf.jpg


45b3fbd5b2e158e8ba8dda662841e833.jpg


According to the Granville-Sharp rule, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are three distinct persons in that verse, yet it says "name," singular. One name, three persons. If that's not an indication that God is triune, I don't know what is.

More pictures:

1f16137c44a03aa4a832d9e6a989271d.jpg


920f62d0abc9ff004d86e8aadef22ad4.jpg

Can you take the time to condense?
 
Top