ECT The 4 major Christian baptisms

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
This verse states in no uncertain terms that "we are all baptized into one body" BY One Spirit.

Yes, we are baptized by the one Spirit. Those indwelt by the Holy Spirit are the personification of the Holy Spirit.

The Father worked through Jesus and the Holy Spirit works through humans.

It was the one Spirit who baptized Jesus through the instrument of John.
 

turbosixx

New member
But you say that we are not baptized into the Body BY the Holy Spirit.
Who added these 3,000 souls that were baptized?
41 So those who received his word were baptized, and there were added that day about three thousand souls.





In order to find the truth let us look at the following passage where the same phrase "gift of the Holy Spirit" is used:

"While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on Gentiles. For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God"
(Acts 10:44-46).​

The Holy Spirit fell on Cornelius and his household and those who had accompanied Peter were astonished that "the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on Gentiles." How did they know that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on Cornelius and his household?

They knew that they had received the "gift Holy Spirit" because "they heard them speak with tongues." Let us look at these verses again:

"...the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on Gentiles. For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God."

Here the word "for" is translated from the Greek word gar, and the meaning of that word as used here is "it addresses the Cause or gives the Reason of a preceding statement or opinion" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon).

The reason that those with Peter knew that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out was because they heard them speak with tongues. So we can understand that the "gift of the Holy Spirit" is the ability to speak in tongues.
Few things here. First, this is a special conversion. They received the Holy Spirit directly from God and it was evident by speaking in tongues. This happened only one other time.
Second, I agree that speaking in tongues is a gift but the Greek word for gift is not in the original transcript. The newer translation correctly omit the word gift.
Third, those on Pentecost didn't speak in tongues. They saw signs and wonders done through the apostles.
Acts 2:43 And fear came upon every soul: and many wonders and signs were done through the apostles.


The baptism before the Cross was a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins and the baptism after the Cross was the same:

"Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit"
(Acts 2:38).​

There are more verses that talk about water baptism after the cross. Are you going to ignore them?
 

turbosixx

New member
WARNING: Mental Block Alert!!!

You say it doesn't matter but it does. If there is one baptism and it's not water, then why would Paul baptize these people.
8 And Crispus, the ruler of the synagogue, believed in the Lord with all his house; and many of the Corinthians hearing believed, and were baptized.

They were also baptized by other men.

So, why did Paul add the cloud and not mention dry if his point was that it's a dry baptism? Your OT verse didn't mention the cloud.
1 Cor. 10:1 For I would not, brethren, have you ignorant, that our fathers were all under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; 2 and were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;

He mentions the cloud and sea twice!
 

Right Divider

Body part
You say it doesn't matter but it does. If there is one baptism and it's not water, then why would Paul baptize these people.
8 And Crispus, the ruler of the synagogue, believed in the Lord with all his house; and many of the Corinthians hearing believed, and were baptized.

They were also baptized by other men.

So, why did Paul add the cloud and not mention dry if his point was that it's a dry baptism? Your OT verse didn't mention the cloud.
1 Cor. 10:1 For I would not, brethren, have you ignorant, that our fathers were all under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; 2 and were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;

He mentions the cloud and sea twice!
OUR FATHERS does NOT refer to the body of Christ. It refers to the ANCESTORS of the nation of Israel.

Sometimes the CONTEXT shows us that Paul is speaking DIRECTLY to his kinsmen in the flesh.

It's not rocket surgery.
 

turbosixx

New member
OUR FATHERS does NOT refer to the body of Christ. It refers to the ANCESTORS of the nation of Israel.

Sometimes the CONTEXT shows us that Paul is speaking DIRECTLY to his kinsmen in the flesh.

It's not rocket surgery.

Why does Paul bring up baptism to begin with?
 

turbosixx

New member
Being a descendant of Israel -- Jacob.

It's not rocket surgery.

I would also add circumcision. Paul tells us that we are descendants of Abraham and have been circumcised.

Gal. 3:29 And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise.
Col. 2:11 In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands,
 

DAN P

Well-known member
I would also add circumcision. Paul tells us that we are descendants of Abraham and have been circumcised.

Gal. 3:29 And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise.
Col. 2:11 In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands,


Hi and we are from ABRAM and NOT from Abraham , just check the Greek text !!

dan p
 

Right Divider

Body part
Why does Paul bring up baptism to begin with?
You have a water fixation.

The vast majority of the times Paul brings up baptism, he is NOT taking about water baptism.

Israel had MANY water baptisms in their LAW.

John's water baptism is not the same as Peters or the law. There many baptisms in the Bible

WATER baptism serves NO purpose in the body of Christ, but it does cause TONS of division.
 

Right Divider

Body part
I would also add circumcision. Paul tells us that we are descendants of Abraham and have been circumcised.

Gal. 3:29 And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise.
Col. 2:11 In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands,
And what does any of that have to do with "Who is an Israelite?"?

Folks like you like to keep changing subjects as if we won't notice.

NOTICE how OUR circumcision is WITHOUT HANDS? But you want water baptism WITH HANDS.

Get over it.
 

turbosixx

New member
You have a water fixation.

The vast majority of the times Paul brings up baptism, he is NOT taking about water baptism.

Israel had MANY water baptisms in their LAW.

John's water baptism is not the same as Peters or the law. There many baptisms in the Bible

WATER baptism serves NO purpose in the body of Christ, but it does cause TONS of division.

So you're going to stick with dry baptism in 1 Cor. 10?
 

Right Divider

Body part
So you're going to stick with dry baptism in 1 Cor. 10?
Paul is speaking specifically to his kinsmen in the flesh (OUR FATHERS). So I don't try to force it to be personally to me, like you seem to want to make it for you.

God as revealed His will and His plans PROGRESSIVELY but you don't want to follow along. Too bad for you.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
So you're going to stick with dry baptism in 1 Cor. 10?



Hi and if you do believe in BAPTIZO and many here say it is IMMERSION , than how were those 2 million plus Jews that crossed gthe Red SEA IMMERSED into Moses , the CLOUD and the SEA ??

It was a DRY BAPTISM and BAPTIZO here just means that the Jews were PLACED / BAPTIZO or BAPTIZO / IDENTIFY with Moses and the CLOUD and the SEA !!

dan p
 

turbosixx

New member
Do you deny that the water baptism of Acts 2:38 was the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins?

Yes, John's baptism was that of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.
Mk. 1:4 John appeared, baptizing in the wilderness and proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

If John's baptism was the same as Jesus' baptism, then Paul wouldn't have needed to baptize these men again "in the name of Jesus".
Acts 19:3 And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" They said, "Into John's baptism." 4 And Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the one who was to come after him, that is, Jesus." 5 On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.


Acts 2:38 they were told to repent but that's not the purpose of Jesus' baptism. His baptism is to make disciples which means they are added to the church and in the church, that he purchased with his blood, his blood will cleanse their sins.

38 And Peter said to them, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

I believe the other verses about baptism will help bring this to light.
 

turbosixx

New member
Paul is speaking specifically to his kinsmen in the flesh (OUR FATHERS). So I don't try to force it to be personally to me, like you seem to want to make it for you.

God as revealed His will and His plans PROGRESSIVELY but you don't want to follow along. Too bad for you.

Are you not a follower of Jesus? Have you not been circumcised? Are you not a descendant of Abraham? If you are then Jesus's fathers are your fathers.

Why did he bring up baptism? What is he telling them?

PROGRESSIVELY is an excuse for lack of proof.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Yes, John's baptism was that of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.
Mk. 1:4 John appeared, baptizing in the wilderness and proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

i asked if the baptism of Acts 2:38 was the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins?

Was it?

If John's baptism was the same as Jesus' baptism, then Paul wouldn't have needed to baptize these men again "in the name of Jesus".
Acts 19:3 And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" They said, "Into John's baptism." 4 And Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the one who was to come after him, that is, Jesus." 5 On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

No one was baptized again. The quote marks belong at the end of verse five and not at the end of verse four. It was those who heard John who were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

Acts 2:38 they were told to repent but that's not the purpose of Jesus' baptism. His baptism is to make disciples which means they are added to the church and in the church, that he purchased with his blood, his blood will cleanse their sins.

Are you saying that two different rites of water baptism was in effect after the Cross? One being the water baptism at Acts 2:38 and another one which you describe as "Jesus' baptism?
 
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