Then why does the prophecy specificy Jerusalem?:
"Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, and thy spoil shall be divided in the midst of thee. For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city. Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle. And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east" (Zech.14:1-4).
Frankly, I am shocked by your continued denial of what is written so plainly in the Scriptures. Over and over you just flat out deny that what is written in the Scriptures is true.
Does he mean THAT location, or does he mean the significance of that in their history, like so many other places? Why for ex., did the 2nd destruction of Jerusalem happen the same week as the first?
As an indicator of its signficance it simply means he will be the triumphant one. But in Rev 21, that 'city' or 'camp' was everywhere on earth that believers were. Thats the city he loves. He called the other one Babylon or Sodom.
Why is the raised tent of David actually the Gentiles coming in? But you shock me with your continued denial of what is so plainly being said by James there. Over and over you flat out deny what Acts is saying. except what you think your one verse in 1:8 means, but deny the departure from it through Acts.