Of course there were 2 groups,
That would receive eternal life?
There was only ever one group like that, until Paul came around, and that was Israel.
Then Acts 7-9 happened, and suddenly a new group appeared.
but the middle wall of partition between them was broken down, making them no longer two, but one.
Ephesians 2:12-14 KJV — That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye (Gentiles) who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both (Jews and Gentiles) one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us ( "us" being Paul representing Jews and the Ephesians representing Gentiles)
This is what happens when one mashes Scriptures that aren't talking about the same thing together.
Stay focused.
I asked a question.
Why did Paul's converts not have to circumcise, yet Israel kept circumcising?
If there's no "wall of partition," then the house rules should be applied equally across the board, yes?
Yet Acts 15, and Galatians 2, tells us that they are not, with different house rules for both Israel, and for Paul's converts.
The need for circumcision is likely past,
You don't seem to sure about that.
I can tell you that for believers under Paul's dispensation of the grace of God, it would profit you NOTHING to circumcise, if it is done for spiritual reasons.
Yet the Jews, to this very day, circumcise their children, in spite of their rebellion against God.
along with other things in the law, like food restrictions,
Which Paul says are left up to the individual, and not required by a law that is applied equally across the board.... but only for those who are in the Body of Christ. Israel still had to keep those laws, still did, and still does.
So why, if there is no "wall of partition," do the Gentiles get to do their own thing, while Israel is still required to keep the law?
because of the culmination of the salvation plan with the death and resurrection of Christ already accomplished.
To reiterate, none of what you've said explains away the internal conflict of your position.
Either the Gentiles AND the Jews no longer have to keep the law, OR the Gentiles and the Jews DO have to keep the law, OR there are two dispensations, one for Israel, and one for the Body of Christ, that have different house rules for those under them.
The first two are the only two logical conclusions of what you've said in the post I'm replying to, yet BOTH contradict scripture.
The third (the essence of the MADist position) is the only one that resolves the issue, by simply letting scripture say what it says.