Ask Mr. Religion
☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) 	
Gold Subscriber
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Also back up to verse 5.Look at the counterpart "Lord" rather than "Son" here. It is a tell-tale sign of something important. If it meant what you think, it would be "Father" then "Son." It isn't. It is a distinction between the two.
[FONT="]In verse 6 Paul could just have stopped with the mention of the Father. Nevertheless he continues, "And one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and we through him."
[/FONT][FONT="][/FONT]
[FONT="]Paul does this mainly for one reason, that is, because Paul has above in verse 5 said "lords many." [/FONT]
[FONT="][/FONT]
[FONT="]While the title Κ[/FONT][FONT="]ύ[/FONT][FONT="]ριος[/FONT][FONT="] (Kurious - Lord) is bestowed upon the Godhead as such and upon the Father as the first person, it is also and eminently, as here, bestowed upon the Son.
[/FONT][FONT="][/FONT]
[FONT="]Already this shows that the Son is true God, unabridged and not subordinate to the Father. His personal and his official name is "Jesus Christ," a name precious to all Christians, but used also to designate him as the incarnate Son and our Redeemer.[/FONT][FONT="]
[/FONT]
[FONT="]Christ's deity is plainly marked by the significant phrase "through whom are all things," the same τ[/FONT][FONT="]ὰ[/FONT][FONT="] π[/FONT][FONT="]ά[/FONT][FONT="]ντα[/FONT][FONT="] as appearing in the first part of the verse. Christ's pre-existence is indicated in the phrase "through whom are all things," and the prepositions [/FONT][FONT="]ἐ[/FONT][FONT="]κ[/FONT][FONT="] and δι[/FONT][FONT="]ά[/FONT][FONT="] mark the respective activities of the Father and of the Son in the work of creation.[/FONT]
LA, you will need a better verse, not that you will find one, than this one to argue your heresy here. :AMR:
AMR