 
	 
In en  the  beginning arch?  was eimi  the ho  Word logos,  and kai  the ho  Word logos  was eimi  with pros  · ho  God theos ,  and kai  the ho  Word logos  was eimi  God theos .He houtos  was eimi  in en  the  beginning arch?  with pros  · ho  God theos.All pas  things  were  created ginomai  by dia  him autos,  and kai  apart ch?ris  from  him autos  not oude  a  single  thing heis  was  created ginomai  that hos  has  been  created ginomai .In en  him autos  was eimi  life z??,  and kai  that ho  life z??  was eimi  the ho  light ph?s  of ho  men anthr?pos .· kai  The ho  light ph?s  shines  on phain?  in en  the ho  darkness skotia,  and kai  the ho  darkness skotia  has katalamban?  not ou  understood katalamban?  it autos .There  came ginomai  on  the  scene  a  man anthr?pos  sent apostell?  from para  God theos,  whose autos  name onoma  was  John I?ann?s .He houtos  came erchomai  as eis  a  witness martyria  to hina  bear  testimony martyre?  about peri  the ho  light ph?s  so  that hina  everyone pas  might  believe pisteu?  through dia  him autos.He ekeinos  was eimi  not ou  the ho  light ph?s,  but alla  came  to hina  bear  testimony martyre?  about peri  the ho  light ph?s .The ho  true al?thinos  light ph?s,  · ho  which hos  enlightens ph?tiz?  everyone pas anthr?pos ,  was eimi  coming erchomai  into eis  the ho  world kosmos .He  was eimi  in en  the ho  world kosmos,  and kai  the ho  world kosmos  was  created ginomai  by dia  him autos ,  but kai  the ho  world kosmos  did gin?sk?  not ou  know gin?sk?  him autos .He  came erchomai  to eis  that ho  which  was  his idios  own,  but kai  his ho  own idios  people  did paralamban?  not ou  accept paralamban?  him autos .But de  as  many hosos  as  did  accept lamban?  him autos,  to  them autos  he  gave did?mi  the  right exousia  to  become ginomai  children teknon  of  God theos ,  to  those ho  who  believe pisteu?  in eis  · ho  his autos  name onoma ,who hos  were  born genna?,  not ou  from ek  human haima  stock  or oude  from ek  a  physical sarx  impulse thel?ma  or oude  by ek  a husband’ s an?r  decision thel?ma ,  but alla  by ek  God theos .And kai  the ho  Word logos  became ginomai  flesh sarx  and kai  dwelt sk?no?  among en  us h?meis,  and kai  we  gazed theaomai  on  · ho  his autos  glory doxa ,  glory doxa  as h?s  of  the  only monogen?s  Son  from para  the  Father pat?r ,  full pl?r?s  of  grace charis  and kai  truth al?theia .John I?ann?s  testified martyre?  about peri  him autos  and kai  cried kraz?  out,  saying leg? , “ This houtos  is eimi  he  of  whom hos  I  said leg? , ‘ He ho  who  comes erchomai  after opis?  me eg?  is ginomai  greater emprosthen  than  I eg? ,  because hoti  he  existed eimi  before pr?tos  me eg? .’” - John 1:1-15 
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:1-15&version=MOUNCE
	
	
		
		
			does not prove Jesus is YHWH. It would be a rather weak 'proof-text', since all it indicates is that the 'logos' (idea, thought, logic, wisdom, word) of 'God' is divine like 'God',...since the 'logos' is derived from 'God', one with 'God'. It is very clear that "in the beginning" this 'creative word',...the spoken word of God is what brought all things into being, for that creative principle is God's creative VOICE, it is that THRU which God creates, brings things into existence. The 'logos' is divine, because it is God's VOICE, logic, creative word, divine wisdom expressing, that designing intelligence which orders/orchestrates creation, his MIND-program, purpose, plan, articulator.
		
		
	 
John 1:1 alone does not prove Jesus is YHWH, true.
Which is why it's important to not look at singular verses alone for proof text. You have to read the surrounding verses for context, hence why above I have provided the Greek/English interlinear translation of John 1.
In John 1:1 We see that the Logos was in the beginning, and that the Logos was with God, and was God.
In John 1:2 We see that He (so we know that the Logos is a person) was in the beginning with God.
In John 1:3 We see that the Logos made all things, and apart from Him, nothing was made (or created) that was made.
In John 1:4 We see that in Him was life, and that life was the light of men.
In John 1:5 We see that the light (of men) shines in the darkness, and the darkness does not understand it.
In John 1:6-9 We see that John the Baptist was sent by God as a witness to bear testimony of the light, so that everyone might believe through him, and that John is not the light, only that he bears testimony that the light, which enlightens everyone, was coming into the world.
In John 1:10 We see that the Logos was in the world, and that the world was made by Him, but the world did not know Him.
In John 1:11 We see that the Logos came to His own (Israel, God's people), but they didn't receive Him.
In John 1:12-13 We see that those who did accept Him and believe in His name He gave the right to become children of God, who were born by God, and not of human stock or physical impulse or by a husband's decision.
In John 1:14 We see that the Logos became a man (flesh) and dwelt among us (mankind), and we gazed on the glory of the Logos, the glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
And in John 1:15 We see that John testified of the Logos, who comes after John, but is greater than him, because the Logos existed before John.
I could go on through the rest of the chapter, but that would take more time than I have currently, and I think those first 15 verses make it abundantly clear that Jesus, in fact, IS the Logos.
Now, who else could John the Baptist be talking about, BUT JESUS? No one.
	
	
		
		
			That the logos is 'a' god, or 'divine', or 'a' God (of God) is what the verse indicates, NOT that the logos itself is The Father-God, since 'God' and the 'logos' are clearly distinct and different entities.
		
		
	 
There's a rule called the Granville-Sharp rule, which states thusly:
"Two nouns connected by kai* (και), the first with the article and the second without it, are by the article identified as one and the same individual or class."
For example, when I say, "the father and the husband," it implies that I'm talking of two separate persons. However, if I say, "the father and husband," it's a very clear indication that I'm talking about the same person, but two titles were attributed to him.
Please, go read this (if any of it, read 4A):
http://www.middletownbiblechurch.org/egreek/egreek05.htm
	
	
		
		
			The 'logos' is WITH 'God', NOT 'God', but only 'theos' as being 'of' theos, being the offspring of Theos.
		
		
	 
The Logos is with God and is God, as John 1:1 clearly states.
	
	
		
		
			The 'logos' is God's agent/agency,....and not God himself,...which would be an absurd and illogical contradiction.
		
		
	 
The only absurd and illogical contradiction is you saying that the Logos is not God Himself.
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			Among 207 Bible translations.....42 render a different translation than the traditional "and the word was God"....showing there are other possible and logical ways to contextually translate this passage. Context is key as well.
		
		
	 
Which you apparently ignored throughout the first half of your post. If context was important to you, then you would have known right away that the Logos is Jesus is God.
	
	
		
		
			See 
here.
Some acceptable translation variations -
"The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine."
-James Moffat Translation
		
 
Divine implies that the Logos is God, because only God is divine. Ergo, the Logos is God.
	
	
		
		
			"When time began the Idea already was. The Idea was at home with God, and the Idea and God were one." 
- Cotton Patch Version (Jordan)
		
		
	 
While "logos" can mean idea, it is clear that in this passage it is referring to the Word of God, who is a person, and that that person is Jesus Christ.
	
	
		
		
			"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." 
- New Testament being the English Only (Kneeland 1823)
		
		
	 
Again, using the Granville-Sharp rule, we know that "the Word was a god" is an incorrect translation of the phrase.
	
	
		
		
			"In the beginning was the plan of Yahweh, and the plan was with Yahweh, and the plan was Yahweh’s." 
- The Book of Yahweh: The Holy Scriptures (Hawkins 1987)
		
		
	 
"the plan was Yahweh s"
Is that "s" supposed to indicate possession? Or just a typo?
The original greek does not indicate anywhere or in any way that the Word "belonged" to God, it states that the Word was (and is, because Jesus still exists) God.
	
	
		
		
			"In the beginning the Word already was. The Word was in God's presence, and what God was, the Word was." 
- Revised English Bible
		
		
	 
"and what God was, the Word was"
This translation fails to convey the same meaning as the original text, which is that the Logos was God.
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Philo's view of 'God' and the 'logos' are also significant here as contemporaneous philosophical belief systems and influences near Jesus time.
		
 
		
	 
Why would you use Greek philosophy to interpret the Bible? The Greeks were polytheistic pagans.
	
	
		
		
			While one's Christology may include the logos being Jesus, or the 'logos' as being an impersonal power, principle or subordinate entity,....of course Jesus is the Messiah-Son, who serves as the Agent-Word of the Father, so the Lord-Messiah is the vehicle of the divine-logos, in its plans, purpose and program orchestrating man's salvation/liberation.
		
		
	 
Jesus is the Logos is God. That's how simple it is.
	
	
		
		
			There are other ways to understand and incorporate the 'logos' in one's Christology, besides a traditional-orthodox Trinitarian model.
		
		
	 
Thats only if you don't consider the context of what is being said, which you clearly do not.
	
	
		
		
			In this way, I've a predisposition for a more greek philosophical orientation, with some gnostic-pagan infusions from the Alexandrian school, and other archetypal traditions.
		
		
	 
No wonder you're having so many problems. Do you think, Freelight, that if God wrote a book, He would make easy to understand the message contained therein? That we wouldn't need philosophers to try to understand it? Certainly He would hide things, because He likes it when we dig into His Word, to find out more about Him. But they wouldn't be hard to understand once we found them...
So again, why would it be necessary to use, of all things, a paganistic view of the Bible to interpret it? It goes against the very essence of the Bible.
	
	
		
		
			"In the beginning was the wisdom, logic, Idea of Deity,....this was with God, and so by relation was divine like God"  - a paraphrase 
 
		 
Why paraphrase, especially if the result is something that doesn't match scripture? It's so simple that there's no need to paraphrase.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."