Jesus didn't use it. John did. This is what I meant from the beginning.The highlighted portion is false, as Hebrews has the phrase "only begotten son":
You don't understand what begging the question is.As to the rest of what you said, more question begging.
Begging the question is using the premise to prove the premise or in other words, using the conclusion to prove the conclusion.You're assuming your position is true, and then arguing from that assumption.
Having a preconception is not "begging the question."
In this case, "the Greek words being in past tense", "the only begotten son being used by John but not Jesus", etc, is not the conclusion. The conclusion is that Jesus likely didn't say the words.
As for the rest of it, you do make good points. One good reason not to quotes other peoples's works. I'll take some time to examine more closely myself.
That's your belief. I think the TR has significant problems. The history of Erasmus and its creation leaves me to doubt it is the most accurate.I don't use the NIV. I use the NKJV because it is closer to the Hebrew/Greek.
Why do you keep on saying this when immediately afterwards, I give the explanation? It makes you seem annoying and mean.Because you say so?
No, they weren't. Read the Gospel. By John 3, the disciples did not know all of this and in such great detail.They weren't?
Jesus went out of his way to teach parables about the Kingdom to the crowds while reserving the explanations to his disciples. Why did Jesus do an about-face and tell his enemy - Nicodemus - more than his disciples? It doesn't make much sense.Context please?
The chapter break is wrong. You need to start on Chapter 2, verse 23.If you had read the entirety of John 3, you might understand the context of why Jesus would talk to Nicodemus. I recommend you start in verses 1 and 2.
Typo. Thank you for pointing it out.Wrong book.
Did you lose focus? The point is that Jesus is using third person in the verse.
The point is not that Jesus never spoke in the third person. The point is that, since he usually didn't, and John does add commentary, one has to determine where John commentary is and where Jesus' words are.Again, so what? The point is that Jesus was using third person in the verse, and in other verses, which gives precedent for John 3:13-21 to also be seen as Jesus speaking in third person.
But as I mention is another discussion, I'm examining this again after reading Matthew 16:13-14.