Why is it not in the usual Christian material that is supposed to be showing the reasons to believe Scripture? Because of a spastic belief system that started 2 centuries back which flits in and out of time frames and contexts and operates a system where God is doing two completely uncoordinated things/programs with 2 unconnected types of people. It is called Dispensationalism.
No, they distrust it because they don't know what's actually within, because of the misinformation spread by churches; mainly the RCC.
Those who fail to distinguish between the different dispensations bring scorn upon Christianity when they say that the following pertains to today:
"And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues; They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover" (Mk.16:17-18).
Those in the Mid Acts community deny that this description of believers is in effect today. Those who believe that this is in effect during the present dispensation turn honest seekers of the truth away from Christianity.
Do you think what is said in these verses are in effect today?
translated from which language,Aramaic,Hebrew, Greek,Latin?
I think the correct term for Josephus type of Greek was Attic (named after a region) but I'm not sure. It is distinct from Luke-Acts and Hebrews as types, but much closer to them (complex and compound sentences) than Paul or John.
OK, even so, if you read a lot of them and then compared to Hebrews or John, there's differences. But Josephus, Hebrews and Luke are still much closer to each other in complexity than John.
lol,Josephus made the comment that he was not very well versed on the fine points of the Greek language and that only an hand-full of Hebrews were speaking of why he wrote in Hebrew,then later his writings were translated to Greek in which of his writings? But we don’t have the originals of either,only Greek minuscule...
Paul didn't write his own either.
lol, in post #12 you said that part of your studies were the translation of Josephus(you said this in several threads).
This made me wonder just how many languages you knew,why is this,,,
In Jewish wars(book 1,preface,paragraph 1) Josephus himself states that he interpreted it into Greek for the barbarians and that he had written it in the language of his own country(Hebrew/Aramaic?).
In Antiquities of the Jews 20,11 is where Josephus speaks of the two or three others he knew that could speak the Greek language well but that he did understand the elements of it.
So it made me wonder you see seeing that you said you interpreted it in school from which language(you said attic in post #29),,,but then those manuscripts don’t exist any more.
so then the only two manuscripts left would be Greek minuscule,or Slavonic(old Russian) that exist that you could have interpreted it from,,,But you said Attic, you can understand why your statement about interpreting Josephus in school and then not knowing which language to say you interpreted it from would strike me curious right? ,,,maybe all of us by now might find your recollection of your school days odd,right?