Hebrews 5:8 does say that Jesus
"learned obedience through what he suffered." But anyone who has made any comparisons knows that the same Epistle also depicts Jesus as perfectly obedient from the moment of his conception:
"When Christ came into the world, he said: Sacrifices and offerings thou hast not desired, but a body hast thou prepared for me ... Then I said: Lo, I have come to do thy will, O God." So it is evident at the outset that Jesus could not have had to learn obedience in his human will: it was the theme of his life from the start. What then does Hebrew 5:8 mean?
Well, just as a person who has long been devoted to the will of God, but now for the first time finds himself in great physical suffering, from cancer, needs to have his bodily side learn to acquiesce, to settle down in suffering, so it was with the bodily, not the spiritual side of Jesus.
Another example would be that despite all the knowledge about His native language, in order for Christ to get his tongue and vocal organs used to forming the sounds-that again needed practice. In fact, the Scriptures say that the flesh has desires (Galatians 5:16). This implies that your body has a mind. So it was the mind or abilities of the physical body that needed to catch up with the Spirit of Christ.
In other words, suppose Christ had met a Chinaman: could he have talked with him? Well, the same principles will solve the question for us now too. For Christ's knowledge gave his human intellect full knowledge of the Chinese language. But his vocal equipment would normally need practice. Divine power could have made up for the lack of that practice. But would it have done so? Now, some have suggested that Christ had acted in obedience as a man because He gave up some of His divinity. For they believe that Christ emptied of himself (A portion of His divinity, but not all) in heaven (Philippians 2:7
HCSB). However, I believe this is based upon the corruption within modern translations or a wrong theological thought that Jesus was not 100% God. For such a model is incompatible with the miracle narratives as proofs of his messianic claims. For an emptying of himself, would mean Jesus gave up being God! Therefore, Christ could not lay claim to working miracles in addition to the Father. For God cannot stop being God.
And yet other modern translations translate Philippians 2:7 as the giving up of divine privileges like the
NLT states. Which would be a little closer to the truth but not exactly correct: For Jesus did not give up His divine abilities or privileges in being God, but He resolved to not to use his divine power for his own comfort. Hence He considered it a temptation to be asked to change stones to bread in the desert. But He would use that power freely for the sake of others, like in the healing of the sick.
What then of the Chinaman: Would Jesus have called on his divine power to provide the missing facility to let him speak to the Chinaman? I am inclined to think He would have, for that would have been for the benefit of the soul of another, not for His own comfort.
