ECT Christological Question - Is Jesus really fully man?

jamie

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Based on those concepts - here is my question - what learns - a "person" or a nature?

If a "person" - which person - the divine person or the human person?

Paul taught that a person is comprised of a human body and a human spirit.

However, to be complete a person requires the addition of God's Spirit, God's nature.

God's nature defines his character. Jesus' job is to make us like him.
 

Aner

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For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead.
(1 Corinthians 15:21)​

Adam sinned because sin is human nature and because of human nature it has been appointed for everyone to die once. (Hebrews 9:27)

However, because Jesus Christ paid the penalty of the second death everyone will be resurrected.
(1 Corinthians 15:22)

Hmmm... I was focusing on this word - ἀνθρώποs (ἀνθρώπου) and the ontological relationship between Adam and Jesus and ontological requirement and implications
 

Aner

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Paul taught that a person is comprised of a human body and a human spirit.

However, to be complete a person requires the addition of God's Spirit, God's nature.

God's nature defines his character. Jesus' job is to make us like him.

How well do you feel you understand the hypostatic union?

My point will be that "person" is not defined as including body - in fact, pretty much in distinction to body.
 

jamie

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LIFETIME MEMBER
My point will be that "person" is not defined as including body - in fact, pretty much in distinction to body.

Paul was not really into metaphysics. He said, "Now may the God of peace Himself sanctify you completely and may your whole spirit, soul, and body be preserved blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ." (1 Thessalonians 5:23)

A person is a soul. Death is defined as the separation of body and spirit. (James 2:26)
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Muzic

Thanks for the input.

Here is what I am challenged by - what do you mean "fully man"? Was Jesus a human person who could function independent of an incarnated deity - just like you and I do??

Thanks

Aner

Already answered that question
 

Wick Stick

Well-known member
Thanks Jarrod

As a man, you can fully function without an incarnated deity. Yes? If Jesus is fully man - I assume, he too can fully function independent of an incarnated deity. Does this make sense?

Thanks
Aner
Fully function?

According to the science of New Testament times, the attribute that separated animals from vegetables and rocks and air, etc, was the ability of self-movement. This was according to animal instinct (Greek "psuchikos", Latin "anima", English "soul").

The difference between Mankind and other animals was a subject of debate, but the leading position seems to be that the ability to self-move according to logic/intelligence was the key attribute. That word is "pneumatikos" or "spiritum" or "spirit."

According to the Bible (as I read it), this latter attribute is not innate to humanity, but rather is an attribute of the Godhead, which God has bestowed on mankind (as a man might stamp an imprint into clay).

Can mankind function without the divine imprint which bestows logic & rational thought? Yes - but if he does, he functions only according to his lower nature. In short, he is no different than an animal in this mode of action.

Jarrod
 
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