While merely asserting a thing is so, does not necessarily make it so, at the same time, merely asserting it is so, does not necessarily make it not so, either - this very statement itself, is a case in point.
In the latter half Matt. 10, He speaks of the persecution they and their converts will have to endure, and that they must endure unto the end for their salvation or deliverance from it's trying, through said trying, James 1; and not to worry about their words, for He will send the Spirit, and that they will not make it past the cities of Israel with their message before the Son of Man be come.
Near about the middle of Luke 21, he basically repeats all that, adds to it His description of it all as "these be the days of vengeance" - He also informs them that all that will be signs signaling them to "look up, for your" (their) redemption draweth nigh" - or after, said outpouring of His wrath.
In the latter half of Romans 9, He later relates through the Apostle Paul, that said pending wrath had been delayed by God, both in His longsuffering, and towards fulfilling first, another aspect of His purpose, just as He had done in Hosea's day.
In 2 Peter 3, Peter mentions this same delay in His wrath in His longsuffering, and even notes that Paul had "also written" about it.
And Peter was not talking about 70AD.
Anyway, feel free to point out what holes in all this that your particular context might influence your perception to see - I can only be enriched by it, in one way, or another.
Because Proverbs 27:17, and that, when viewed in light of Romans 5:8
Note:
Acts 10 took place after Romans 9's temporary delay in His wrath.
