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You keep saying that, as if it makes calvinism correct.

Scripture says more than just Romans 3:11. When are you going to realize that putting blinders on your eyes so that you can only read one verse at a time isn't a good way of studying it?

Duh! The fact of the matter is that it does, in fact, mean "one," regardless of whatever else it also means. The point I'm trying to make is that the context defines the meaning of the word. Take, for example, the word "yom" in Hebrew (English "day"). It can mean a 24 hour period, a portion...

Anyone who enters through the door is by definition a follower of Christ. But that doesn't tell us anything about how they became a follower. THAT is my point.

https://kgov.com/stretch

Duh. But I was referencing the verse where Paul says, explicitly, "Christ died for the ungodly." Obviously. But I'm not talking about the "ungodly who were redeemed" only, and neither was Paul, or at the very least, he didn't specify if he was talking about a specific group of ungodly people...

A sheep is a figure of speech that means follower. If a sheep enters the Door of Jesus Christ, it is because he is a follower of Christ. Which says nothing at all at how he became a sheep.

False statement not found in scripture. For Jesus Himself says: “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the one who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not willing! - Matthew...

Christ gave His life for the ungodly. And there's no qualifying statement attached to "ungodly" in that passage. But that death is not applied to all the ungodly, only those who believe after they are called.

So does He redeem those who do not believe after being called?

So if God calls, can man reject His calling?

Can man seek God after He has called them?

Uh, yeah, it does mean the same thing, given the context and what is actually said... I literally gave you the greek AND it's DIRECT TRANSLATION in the image you CLEARLY ignored. THE ONLY WAY for the verse to be translated any other way than "the husband of one wife" is to intentionally...

Now respond to the rest of my post.

Who is He redeeming? "US." Who is "us," b57?

Chapter verse. Because Paul says: What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet.”But sin, taking opportunity by the commandment...

I skipped it because your reason is illogical and irrational. Here's why: Which citizens? Because last I checked, unbelievers are (also) citizens of the world. And sins are only charged when there is no law. Believers, because they have died "in Christ," are dead to the law, and because...

Again, you're assuming (wrongly) that it cannot mean the whole world simply because the whole world doesn't receive life. And I'm pointing out that just because someone is given something doesn't mean the one being given it is effectually made to receive it. It's a non-sequitur. The example I...

Because you say so?

Total inability from birth/conception? Define "dead" as anything other than "separated from God" and you do damage to the rest of scripture.