Yes, but realize the significance of a prophecy quoted by Matthew for a narrative that occurred a decent amount of time before Paul wrote 1 Corinthians, probably written after 1st Corinthians (according to some scholars, it between 45 and 55 AD, some say as late as 90 AD). This shows continuity of the message from prophecy to fulfillment to historical record, bookending Paul's letter.
I'm not seeing how it bookends Paul's letter. (Maybe you're seeing something I'm not?)
Matthew 4:15-16 is quoting Isaiah 9:1-2, and Matthew explicitly says that what happened was in fulfillment of what Isaiah had prophesied.
So the sequence is:
Isaiah prophesied it → Christ fulfilled it during His earthly ministry → Matthew later recorded the fulfillment.
Matthew possibly writing his account after Paul wrote 1 Corinthians doesn't move the event itself to after Paul's revelation, nor does it make Paul's revelation part of the same prophetic program.
The continuity there is between Isaiah's prophecy and its fulfillment in Christ's earthly ministry.
Can you explain the significance you see in that?
That's what I'm asking you.
Matthew 4 is talking about people sitting in darkness seeing a great light.
1 Corinthians 15:54 is talking about the resurrection, when mortality puts on immortality and "Death is swallowed up in victory."
1 John 3:14 says, "We know that we have passed from death to life, because we love the brethren."
They all use death/life imagery, but I'm not seeing how that establishes that Matthew, Paul, and John were therefore teaching the same gospel or addressing the same dispensation.
What specifically do you see connecting those passages beyond the imagery?
If John was only writing to Jews (which I doubt),
Why do you doubt it?
Galatians 2 explicitly tells us that John was one of those whose ministry was to the circumcision:
and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians 2:9&version=NKJV
And John's epistles fit that assignment.
First John repeatedly addresses his readers as "little children," while 2 John is addressed "To the elect lady and her children."
That fits the prophetic presentation of Israel as a woman, wife, mother, or daughter, and Israelites as her children.
I wouldn't make the case from "little children" alone, since Paul does use similar familial language in Galatians 4:19. But taken together with "the elect lady and her children," John's emphasis on the commandments, "the last hour," Antichrist, what they had heard "from the beginning," and especially the explicit agreement in Galatians 2 that John would go to the circumcision, the audience seems pretty clear.
If John ceased ministering to the circumcision and instead became an apostle to the Body of Christ, where does Scripture tell us that happened?
and he was still speaking of the kingdom gospel (which is the only reason he would still be writing to Jews only, imho),
And John's epistles are entirely consistent with his continuing in that kingdom ministry, as explained below.
then it is very significant to the conversation about whether Paul and John thought the same thing of what the gospel (and therefore the early church) was about.
But if John was still speaking of the kingdom gospel and still writing to the circumcision, that supports the distinction I'm making.
The Twelve were already preaching the gospel of the kingdom in Luke 9:1-6.
Yet in Luke 18:31-34, when Christ told them plainly that He would be killed and rise again, they did not understand what He was telling them.
So the gospel they were preaching in Luke 9 could not have been Christ's death, burial, and resurrection for our sins, because they didn't yet understand that He was going to die and rise again.
Paul, on the other hand, explicitly identifies Christ's death for our sins, burial, and resurrection as the gospel he preached in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.
So John continuing in the kingdom gospel after Paul's ministry began doesn't demonstrate that Paul and John were preaching the same thing.
It demonstrates that John's kingdom ministry to the circumcision continued alongside Paul's distinct ministry to the Gentiles.
(24:16) Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains: