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  • ECT: Did the "Eternal Word" merge with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions?

    Important Note:


    I have been away for a while. For those of you who do not know me, I am a believer in Jesus Christ. I am a Christian. I believe the Bible is divinely inspired perfect Word of God (with no errors). I believe in the Trinity and I believe Jesus died and was risen again on my behalf for salvation through faith by God's Word (the Bible) alone. I believe Jesus had a real physical flesh and blood body (Whose shed blood washed away my sins). I also want to say that we as Christians do look through a glass darkly and Scripture is not exactly clear on certain things.

    Did the "Eternal Word" merge with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions?

    I believe the most likely explanation is that Jesus had a divine soul only, and that His divine attribute of Omniscience (i.e. to have all knowledge) was suppressed.

    Why do I believe this? Was it because of some creed or church told me to believe this way? No. Most surely not. It is purely based on what I have come to know the Scriptures say and by logic, and knowing the love of God, and His good ways.

    So here are the verses for you to consider (Which is my preferred explanation on understanding Christ's divine and human behavior expressed in Scripture):

    #1. Hebrews 7:26 - "For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;"

    Jesus is holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners. He was made higher than the heavens. He became us (in the fact that he had a flesh and blood body), but he was holy. A person or being who is truly holy, harmless, undefiled and separate from sinners does not have the capacity to sin. Some say that Jesus had a human nature whereby He had the ability to potentially do evil. This means that in order to do evil or sin, one must have lusts or bad desires within them in order to carry out or act upon those wrong desires or lusts. Yet, the Bible says he was holy, undefiled and separate from sinners.

    #2. 1 John 2:16 - "For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world."

    This verse states that the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life is not of the Father, but is of the world.

    Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30).

    So if Jesus is truly one with the Father (and He is), then Jesus cannot also have any lusts of the flesh, or lusts of the eyes, or the pride of life. These things are of the world. In fact, the devil tried to offer Jesus the kingdoms of this world, but He refused his offer.

    #3. Micah 5:2 - "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."

    This is a Messianic prophecy that talks about how Jesus will be a ruler over Israel one day. It says that the origin of this ruler (Jesus) is from of old, from everlasting. Alternatively however if Jesus had a human soul or human mind, it suggests that Jesus was a newly created being that did not exist before the Incarnation. He would not have technically existed from everlasting if he joined with a newly created human counterpart in the Incarnation. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us. His origins are from everlasting in the fact that He is the eternal Living Word (or the Word of God as Revelation says). Jesus. He always existed. This presents a problem for Hypostatic Union (HU).

    #4. 1 John 4:2 - "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."

    It's a pretty fair conclusion to make that Jesus was unlike us. He was unique. This verse is not saying that he was like us. This verse does not say after he came into the flesh he became known as the man called, Jesus Christ. That is not what we are to confess. We are to confess that Jesus Christ is COME in the flesh. What this verse is suggesting (like other verses) is that Jesus Christ has always existed. Jesus Christ is COME (entered) into the flesh or body of a man. In fact, Jesus was laughed at when he said he knew Abraham. But Jesus said this to them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58). After the crowd heard this: The crowd went ape crazy and they picked up stones to throw at him. In other words, Jesus is saying He has always existed. He did not come down into a newly created human soul or spirit and take on a human nature so as to potentially sin. That wouldn't make any sense. For me this is a really strong point for this position.

    #5. 1 Peter 2:24 - "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed."

    Many believe that the atonement is denied if one does not believe Jesus had a human nature. But having a human soul or human spirit is not a requirement in order for God to redeem us of our sins. How so? Peter says that Jesus took on our sins in his body on the cross. So the human spirit and or human soul is not necessary for our salvation. Jesus's blood is what washes away our sins and not the soul or some spirit. For a high price was paid for our sins, and that was with Christ's death.

    #6. 1 Timothy 3:16 - "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."

    This verse says that God was manifest in the flesh. It does not say God was manifest through a human soul or human spirit along with that flesh. God was manifest in the flesh. However, if Jesus took on a human soul, and human spirit, it really wouldn't be God manifesting in the flesh (according to this verse) because He would be like every other believer who has God living inside of them. Jesus was unique and different from us. Jesus was literally GOD. He was manifest in the flesh.

    #7. John 14:30 - "Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."

    Jesus is claiming that the devil has nothing inside of him. Meaning, Jesus does not have any of the lusts of the devil residing within himself (Which would be present in a normal corrupt human nature).

    Jesus says to certain Jews, "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. " (John 8:44).

    So Jesus is describing something of his opponents that they do, which does not apply to Him.

    For Jesus says, "If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42).

    So lusts do not reside in Jesus. So the false belief that Jesus could have sinned because he had a human nature does not work.

    14 "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
    15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).

    #8. Jesus said:
    "For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38).

    Now, stop and think about this for a moment. If Jesus said He came down from Heaven, then that means He was either:
    (a) He was not telling the entire truth because He was referring to some divine portion of Himself (or):

    (b) He was telling the entire truth and He actually did come down from Heaven and He was not created in the Incarnation as some newly created being who had a new human soul, and or human mind, etc.

    Also, if Jesus is able to speak from His divine part of Himself, how is able to shut off the human part of Himself? How is Jesus able to disconnect His human mind, will, and emotions? Jesus said He came down from Heaven. Jesus did not say He came from the Incarnation as if that was His beginning. Again, this is yet another strong point for this position. But many Christians are convinced that the Hypostatic Union (HU) is the truth. What do you say is the truth on this with Scripture?

    #9. if Jesus is worshiped as GOD, then that disqualifies Him in fully being a man because man is not to be worshiped as GOD because man is limited and only a created being. For Jesus says, "Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." (Luke 4:8).

    #10. Isaiah 43:11 says, "I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour."
    This means that there cannot be a newly created Savior to sit next to God. Jesus could not have merged with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions (i.e. a human soul) so as to be a unique Savior to God. Jesus is God, and He is the Savior. If Jesus is a newly created being in the universe, then technically He would be able to be next to the Lord and be beside Him.
    Last edited by Jason0047; March 13th, 2019, 09:59 AM.
    If you have never received the love that comes from accepting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, check out this thread here: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?132508-What-is-the-gospel-amp-what-is-it-s-end-goal-or-purpose-for-our-lives

  • #2
    Hi Jason,

    Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
    Important Note:

    I have been away for a while.
    Well, as a recently promoted moderator, welcome back!

    For those of you who do not know me, I am a believer in Jesus Christ. I am a Christian.


    I believe the Bible is divinely inspired perfect Word of God (with no errors).
    In it's original manuscripts? or in it's current form? (Not your main point, I know, but this will be the only one, I promise. I'm just curious...)

    I believe in the Trinity and I believe Jesus died and was risen again on my behalf for salvation through faith by God's Word (the Bible) alone. I believe Jesus had a real physical flesh and blood body (Whose shed blood washed away my sins). I also want to say that we as Christians do look through a glass darkly and Scripture is not exactly clear on certain things.


    Did the "Eternal Word" merge with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions?

    I believe the most likely explanation is that Jesus had a divine soul only, and that His divine attribute of Omniscience (i.e. to have all knowledge) was suppressed.

    Why do I believe this? Was it because of some creed or church told me to believe this way? No. Most surely not. It is purely based on what I have come to know the Scriptures say and by logic, and knowing the love of God, and His good ways.

    So here are the verses for you to consider (Which is my preferred explanation on understanding Christ's divine and human behavior expressed in Scripture):

    #1. Hebrews 7:26 - "For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;"

    Jesus is holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners. He was made higher than the heavens. He became us (in the fact that he had a flesh and blood body), but he was holy. A person or being who is truly holy, harmless, undefiled and separate from sinners does not have the capacity to sin. Some say that Jesus had a human nature whereby He had the ability to potentially do evil. This means that in order to do evil or sin, one must have lusts or bad desires within them in order to carry out or act upon those wrong desires or lusts. Yet, the Bible says he was holy, undefiled and separate from sinners.

    #2. 1 John 2:16 - "For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world."

    This verse states that the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life is not of the Father, but is of the world.

    Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30).

    So if Jesus is truly one with the Father (and He is), then Jesus cannot also have any lusts of the flesh, or lusts of the eyes, or the pride of life. These things are of the world. In fact, the devil tried to offer Jesus the kingdoms of this world, but He refused his offer.

    #3. Micah 5:2 - "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."

    This is a Messianic prophecy that talks about how Jesus will be a ruler over Israel one day. It says that the origin of this ruler (Jesus) is from of old, from everlasting. Alternatively however if Jesus had a human soul or human mind, it suggests that Jesus was a newly created being that did not exist before the Incarnation. He would not have technically existed from everlasting if he joined with a newly created human counterpart in the Incarnation. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us. His origins are from everlasting in the fact that He is the eternal Living Word (or the Word of God as Revelation says). Jesus. He always existed. This presents a problem for Hypostatic Union (HU).

    #4. 1 John 4:2 - "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."

    It's a pretty fair conclusion to make that Jesus was unlike us. He was unique. This verse is not saying that he was like us. This verse does not say after he came into the flesh he became known as the man called, Jesus Christ. That is not what we are to confess. We are to confess that Jesus Christ is COME in the flesh. What this verse is suggesting (like other verses) is that Jesus Christ has always existed. Jesus Christ is COME (entered) into the flesh or body of a man. In fact, Jesus was laughed at when he said he knew Abraham. But Jesus said this to them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58). After the crowd heard this: The crowd went ape crazy and they picked up stones to throw at him. In other words, Jesus is saying He has always existed. He did not come down into a newly created human soul or spirit and take on a human nature so as to potentially sin. That wouldn't make any sense. For me this is a really strong point for this position.

    #5. 1 Peter 2:24 - "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed."

    Many believe that the atonement is denied if one does not believe Jesus had a human nature. But having a human soul or human spirit is not a requirement in order for God to redeem us of our sins. How so? Peter says that Jesus took on our sins in his body on the cross. So the human spirit and or human soul is not necessary for our salvation. Jesus's blood is what washes away our sins and not the soul or some spirit. For a high price was paid for our sins, and that was with Christ's death.

    #6. 1 Timothy 3:16 - "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."

    This verse says that God was manifest in the flesh. It does not say God was manifest through a human soul or human spirit along with that flesh. God was manifest in the flesh. However, if Jesus took on a human soul, and human spirit, it really wouldn't be God manifesting in the flesh (according to this verse) because He would be like every other believer who has God living inside of them. Jesus was unique and different from us. Jesus was literally GOD. He was manifest in the flesh.

    #7. John 14:30 - "Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."

    Jesus is claiming that the devil has nothing inside of him. Meaning, Jesus does not have any of the lusts of the devil residing within himself (Which would be present in a normal corrupt human nature).

    Jesus says to certain Jews, "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. " (John 8:44).

    So Jesus is describing something of his opponents that they do, which does not apply to Him.

    For Jesus says, "If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42).

    So lusts do not reside in Jesus. So the false belief that Jesus could have sinned because he had a human nature does not work.

    14 "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
    15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).

    #8. Jesus said:
    "For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38).

    Now, stop and think about this for a moment. If Jesus said He came down from Heaven, then that means He was either:
    (a) He was not telling the entire truth because He was referring to some divine portion of Himself (or):

    (b) He was telling the entire truth and He actually did come down from Heaven and He was not created in the Incarnation as some newly created being who had a new human soul, and or human mind, etc.

    Also, if Jesus is able to speak from His divine part of Himself, how is able to shut off the human part of Himself? How is Jesus able to disconnect His human mind, will, and emotions? Jesus said He came down from Heaven. Jesus did not say He came from the Incarnation as if that was His beginning. Again, this is yet another strong point for this position. But many Christians are convinced that the Hypostatic Union (HU) is the truth. What do you say is the truth on this with Scripture?
    You make a lot of points that could lead off into other discussions, but if I'm reading your post correctly, your argument is that Jesus did not take on a second nature, "man," at the incarnation?

    Am I reading your post correct? or did I misread something?

    Comment


    • #3
      Originally posted by JudgeRightly View Post
      Hi Jason,



      Well, as a recently promoted moderator, welcome back!







      In it's original manuscripts? or in it's current form? (Not your main point, I know, but this will be the only one, I promise. I'm just curious...)







      You make a lot of points that could lead off into other discussions, but if I'm reading your post correctly, your argument is that Jesus did not take on a second nature, "man," at the incarnation?

      Am I reading your post correct? or did I misread something?
      Yes. I believe Jesus only took on a human flesh and blood body (Which was from the DNA of Mary). The Eternal Logos (JESUS) merely suppressed His divine attribute of Omniscience (i.e. to have all knowledge) so as to be like a human in behavior. This is why Jesus was able to grow in wisdom (Luke 2:52), and why He did not know the day or the hour of His own return (Matthew 24:36).

      In other words, the Logos took on a human nature by suppressing His Omniscience.

      Oh, and thank you for welcoming me back.
      If you have never received the love that comes from accepting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, check out this thread here: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?132508-What-is-the-gospel-amp-what-is-it-s-end-goal-or-purpose-for-our-lives

      Comment


      • #4
        [MENTION=16942]JudgeRightly[/MENTION]:

        As for the Word being perfect:

        I believe the King James Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) is the perfect Word for our day. To my knowledge: The KJV is translated into 7 languages (not counting the English). Before the English: I believe the Word was perfectly preserved through out history in the Latin, Greek, and Hebrew (Aramaic - Parts of the book of Daniel). I don’t believe there are any errors in the words God chose to preserve through out time.

        You can read the KJV Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) via Biblehub as per their regular KJV they have listed (courtesy of Bible Protector).

        In other words, I believe the original manuscripts (Hebrew/Aramaic & Greek) are perfect; And I believe the Latin Bible (Latin Vulgate and not the Catholic Vulgate) is perfect, and the English Bible (KJV Cambr. 1900) is perfect.

        May God bless you.

        Sincerely,

        ~ Jason.
        Last edited by Jason0047; March 12th, 2019, 06:59 AM.
        If you have never received the love that comes from accepting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, check out this thread here: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?132508-What-is-the-gospel-amp-what-is-it-s-end-goal-or-purpose-for-our-lives

        Comment


        • #5
          Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
          It's a pretty fair conclusion to make that Jesus was unlike us. He was unique. This verse is not saying that he was like us.
          What about this one?:

          "Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people" (Heb.2:17).

          Comment


          • #6
            Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
            What about this one?:

            "Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people" (Heb.2:17).
            Hello Jerry.

            It is nice to see you again.

            I bolded the word “like” in the verse you quoted (of which you will be able to see in my quote of your post). Obviously Jesus could not be exactly like His brethren in every way because Jesus was also worshiped as God.

            I hope you understand where I am coming from.

            May God bless you.
            If you have never received the love that comes from accepting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, check out this thread here: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?132508-What-is-the-gospel-amp-what-is-it-s-end-goal-or-purpose-for-our-lives

            Comment


            • #7
              Follow the logic. The Scriptures say that God cannot be tempted (James 1:13). Yet, folks are saying Jesus was tempted by sin but He simply chose not to sin. This a paradox or a contradiction.
              If you have never received the love that comes from accepting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, check out this thread here: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?132508-What-is-the-gospel-amp-what-is-it-s-end-goal-or-purpose-for-our-lives

              Comment


              • #8
                Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
                Hello Jerry.

                It is nice to see you again.
                Thanks!

                Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
                I bolded the word “like” in the verse you quoted (of which you will be able to see in my quote of your post). Obviously Jesus could not be exactly like His brethren in every way because Jesus was also worshiped as God.
                Yes, He was worshipped as God but that does not change the fact that He was made in the likeness of man:

                "Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross"
                (Phil.2:5-8).

                In his commentary on Hebrews 2:17 Matthew Poole wrote that "To be made like unto his brethren; a man having a true body and soul like them in every thing, which was necessary to make him a complete Redeemer; agreeable to them in all things necessary to their nature, qualities, conditions, and affections; like them in sorrows, griefs, pains, death."

                According to Poole the Lord Jesus' body and soul was just like the body and soul of every person.

                Albert Barnes sees the same truth, writing that "Wherefore in all things - In respect to his body; his soul; his rank and character. There was a propriety that he should be like them, and should partake of their nature."

                Comment


                • #9
                  Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
                  [MENTION=16942]JudgeRightly[/MENTION]:

                  As for the Word being perfect:

                  I believe the King James Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) is the perfect Word for our day.
                  Did the first day of the feast of unleavened bread precede the passover?:
                  "Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?" (Mt.26:17; KJV).

                  Of course not:

                  "These are the feasts of the LORD, even holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their seasons. In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD'S passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread"
                  (Lev.23:4-6).

                  In the KJV at Matthew 26:17 the translators incorrectly added the word "feast."
                  Last edited by Jerry Shugart; March 12th, 2019, 05:16 PM.

                  Comment


                  • #10
                    Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
                    Follow the logic. The Scriptures say that God cannot be tempted (James 1:13). Yet, folks are saying Jesus was tempted by sin but He simply chose not to sin. This a paradox or a contradiction.
                    That's a reach. Some say God does not repent, but we have verses saying He does.

                    Comment


                    • #11
                      Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
                      Yes. I believe Jesus only took on a human flesh and blood body (Which was from the DNA of Mary). The Eternal Logos (JESUS) merely suppressed His divine attribute of Omniscience (i.e. to have all knowledge) so as to be like a human in behavior. This is why Jesus was able to grow in wisdom (Luke 2:52), and why He did not know the day or the hour of His own return (Matthew 24:36).

                      In other words, the Logos took on a human nature by suppressing His Omniscience.

                      Oh, and thank you for welcoming me back.
                      God donning a man suit for a time?
                      I've heard that before.

                      I see two examples of how you think He suppressed His Omniscience, but there are many more examples where He clearly didn't. He knew what men were thinking. He knew who was going to betray Him. He knew many many things.

                      Comment


                      • #12
                        Originally posted by Jason0047 View Post
                        Follow the logic. The Scriptures say that God cannot be tempted (James 1:13). Yet, folks are saying Jesus was tempted by sin but He simply chose not to sin. This a paradox or a contradiction.
                        If He still retained His omniscience, as it seems to me He did, then He would know all things, and understand that it was wrong to desire what was not His to have. The fact that He was God living as a human being, left Him with the full picture that we as mere humans don't have. We have a taste of it in our consciences, but not the knowledge that our Lord had as our Creator.

                        Comment


                        • #13
                          Originally posted by glorydaz View Post
                          If He still retained His omniscience, as it seems to me He did, then He would know all things...

                          "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only" (Mt.24:36).

                          Did the Lord Jesus know the day and the hour?

                          Comment


                          • #14
                            Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post

                            "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only" (Mt.24:36).

                            Did the Lord Jesus know the day and the hour?
                            He did in His deity. Being ONE with the Father.

                            Jesus speaks of His "Father" in His humanity.

                            Comment


                            • #15
                              Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
                              Thanks!



                              Yes, He was worshipped as God but that does not change the fact that He was made in the likeness of man:

                              "Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross"
                              (Phil.2:5-8).

                              In his commentary on Hebrews 2:17 Matthew Poole wrote that "To be made like unto his brethren; a man having a true body and soul like them in every thing, which was necessary to make him a complete Redeemer; agreeable to them in all things necessary to their nature, qualities, conditions, and affections; like them in sorrows, griefs, pains, death."

                              According to Poole the Lord Jesus' body and soul was just like the body and soul of every person.

                              Albert Barnes sees the same truth, writing that "Wherefore in all things - In respect to his body; his soul; his rank and character. There was a propriety that he should be like them, and should partake of their nature."
                              First, "likeness" does not imply "exactness."

                              Second, if Jesus is worshiped as GOD, then that disqualifies Him in fully being a man because man is not to be worshiped as GOD because man is limited and only a created being. For Jesus says, "Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." (Luke 4:8).

                              Three, Isaiah 43:11 says, "I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour."
                              This means that there cannot be a newly created Savior to sit next to God. Jesus could not have merged with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions (i.e. a human soul) so as to be a unique Savior to God. Jesus is God, and He is the Savior. If Jesus is a newly created being in the universe, then technically He would be able to be next to the Lord and be beside Him.

                              As for Philippians 2: I will have to comment on this later. ...
                              Last edited by Jason0047; March 12th, 2019, 08:08 AM.
                              If you have never received the love that comes from accepting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, check out this thread here: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?132508-What-is-the-gospel-amp-what-is-it-s-end-goal-or-purpose-for-our-lives

                              Comment

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