Your opinion on God’s Law.

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
The temple had been destroyed before, but it was rebuilt.

And Jesus rebuilt the temple in three days, just as He promised. That was the resurrection, and He is the temple not made with hands into whom we are translated and are that same temple.

There is no need for another physical temple. The final rebuilt temple is Him and all who believe.
 

Jacob

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You missed the part where nomos (law) is distribution, and He fulfilled it by being the final distribution of God's righteousness.

Law, as a noun, is the thing distributed. Christ was distributed in the Incarnation. He is the law, having fulfilled the anarthrous of the noun law.
Jesus observed and taught the Law. But the word nomos is a Greek word.
 

meshak

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You missed the part where nomos (law) is distribution, and He fulfilled it by being the final distribution of God's righteousness.

Law, as a noun, is the thing distributed. Christ was distributed in the Incarnation. He is the law, having fulfilled the anarthrous of the noun law.

What is your point?

Are you saying Jesus' followers don't have to keep His law?
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
I am talking about the content of 1 Timothy 1.

The lawful use of the law is to show someone BY THE SCRIPTURES that they need the Saviour. It certainly is not to show anyone that justification and/or righteousness come by it (Galatians 2:16 KJV. Galatians 2:21 KJV). To place yourself under it is to fall from grace (Galatians 5:4 KJV). Now, get on with the ministry of reconciliation! Show someone how that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them (2 Corinthians 5:19 KJV, 2 Corinthians 5:21 KJV). Tell them how to be saved and sealed (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV, Ephesians 1:13 KJV, Ephesians 2:8-9 KJV)!
 

meshak

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PPS,

There are many so called "Christians" claim they don't have to keep Jesus' law because His word is just for the Jews and not for the gentiles.

are you one of them?
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
He was made (poieo) sin (singular anarthrous noun) for us. That's not the individual doing and done of sinning and sins.
Christ died for our sins (plural)

1 Corinthians 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

after having been made sin (singular) for us!

2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

The question: "How many of your sins did Christ not die for?" is still waiting a response. How about it?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
PPS,

There are many so called "Christians" claim they don't have to keep Jesus' law because His word is just for the Jews and not for the gentiles.

are you one of them?

Being in Christ is the only way to keep the law.

The Mosaic Law was a Covenant. That same covenant was fulfilled and given to us in Christ. Faith HAS and WILL fulfill the law.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
PPS,

There are many so called "Christians" claim they don't have to keep Jesus' law because His word is just for the Jews and not for the gentiles.

are you one of them?
There are many so called "Christians" who are religious, but lost. Are you one of them? If there has never been a moment in your life when you trusted the Lord believing the gospel of YOUR salvation as the means by which we are saved (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV) you are not in the faith (2 Corinthians 13:5 KJV). And since we see by your testimony over and over how you reject it, you are lost.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Christ died for our sins (plural)

Plural articular. And only because of 1Cor 5:21, as I indicated.

1 Corinthians 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

after having been made sin (singular) for us!

Singular anarthrous. Not singular articular or the verb or the resulting act as a noun. The differences are huge.

2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

The question: "How many of your sins did Christ not die for?" is still waiting a response. How about it?

None of what you've referenced from scripture are the doing or done of sinning or resulting sins. None are the final individual acts accomplished, so your question is fallacious because you don't understand Hamartiology.

Hamartiai (plural articular) is not the same noun as hamartema. But that won't matter to you. You want the answer to an incorrect question.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Plural articular. And only because of 1Cor 5:21, as I indicated.



Singular anarthrous. Not singular articular or the verb or the resulting act as a noun. The differences are huge.



None of what you've referenced from scripture are the doing or done of sinning or resulting sins. None are the final individual acts accomplished, so your question is fallacious because you don't understand Hamartiology.

Hamartiai (plural articular) is not the same noun as hamartema. But that won't matter to you. You want the answer to an incorrect question.

Ontologically speaking...
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Ontologically speaking...

Actually, yes. Too bad you and all your cohorts don't spend the time to comprehend the basics of Greek grammar contrasted with English grammar. Then you wouldn't have to build subtly false doctrines and look foolish without realizing it as you mock others who know the truth you've passively denied, even if you're allegedly well-meaning.
 

Jacob

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And the Ten "Commandments" were the Ten "Words".

The Greek represents the Hebrew. Both are inspired.

Of course both are inspired. The Law, or God's Law, does involve instruction in the New Testament writings. But the Law is the Torah, the first five books of the Bible, or the Law of Moses, God's Law (the Law of God).
 
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