You still do not recognize the passage from the hint? or do you simply choose not to acknowledge the point that was being made to Jerry Shugart? How many points and truths does one need to miss before he ends up in the theological ditch?
When does the biblical day begin?
- Thread starter clefty
- Start date
You still do not recognize the passage from the hint? or do you simply choose not to acknowledge the point that was being made to Jerry Shugart? How many points and truths does one need to miss before he ends up in the theological ditch?
There is only one place where the KJV uses the word "Easter" and most every student of the scripture knows the place:
Acts 12:1-4 KJV
1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
It is not "Easter" but the Pascha, (το πασχα), which is most everywhere else rendered "the Passover". Moreover it is not "after Easter" but rather "WITH-AMIDST the Passover" in the above, (μετα το πασχα, "with-amidst the Passover"), but in this sense it means "with the end" or "at the end", yet still within the time frame given by the context because meta means with-amidst-within: and the time frame context is clearly "the days of Unleavened Bread", which were already in progress, during which Peter was taken and imprisoned by Herod, (and "the Passover" is mentioned secondarily because this Passover is clearly at the end of Unleavened Bread).
This passage therefore concerns the same day and the same custom as in the OP passages in the following thread where this has been explained, Atzeret-Exodion, (the seventh and final day of Passover Unleavened Bread). And since there are two days singled out apart from the whole "feast of Unleavened Bread" in the Torah, which two days are also called "feasts", (for the seventh day is also called a feast in Exodus 13:6), it is shown herein that both the first and the seventh days were called the Passover. Eventually the whole week became known as Passover and-or Unleavened Bread and the two terms became more or less interchangeable as they are today. But in the context above the author plainly states that it was already the days of Unleavened Bread when Peter was thrown into prison. Herod therefore had intended to bring Peter forth to the people at the same time of the custom we read about in the Gospel accounts, where Bar-Abbas was released in the custom of the release, (Atzeret-Exodion), which was the last day, the seventh day, the final "feast day" of Passover Unleavened Bread. If therefore one reads the author as calling the seventh day, "the Passover", then "with" or "amidst", (μετα), makes perfect sense all by itself because the final Passover had not yet occurred when Herod cast Peter into prison, (for it was yet during the days of Unleavened Bread). In other words the author is calling the seventh day of Unleavened Bread, "the Passover", meaning that both the first day and the last day were called, "the Passover", (as well as the whole feast).
Acts 12:3-4
3 And when he saw that it pleased the Yhudim, he proceeded to seize Peter also: and these were the days of Unleavened Bread.
4 And when he had taken him, he put him in prison and delivered him over to four quaternions of soldiers to guard him, intending with-amidst the Passover to bring him forth to the people.
You all therefore do terribly err because the final day of the feast is called the feast of Meshiah as even called by some Jews and celebrated as such to this day: and it is the day in which the Sea of Reeds is parted and the sons of Yisrael pass|over into the Sanctuary of the Father, (Exodus 15:11-19, (see specifically Exodus 15:16, 17)).
Acts 12:1-4 KJV
1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
It is not "Easter" but the Pascha, (το πασχα), which is most everywhere else rendered "the Passover". Moreover it is not "after Easter" but rather "WITH-AMIDST the Passover" in the above, (μετα το πασχα, "with-amidst the Passover"), but in this sense it means "with the end" or "at the end", yet still within the time frame given by the context because meta means with-amidst-within: and the time frame context is clearly "the days of Unleavened Bread", which were already in progress, during which Peter was taken and imprisoned by Herod, (and "the Passover" is mentioned secondarily because this Passover is clearly at the end of Unleavened Bread).
This passage therefore concerns the same day and the same custom as in the OP passages in the following thread where this has been explained, Atzeret-Exodion, (the seventh and final day of Passover Unleavened Bread). And since there are two days singled out apart from the whole "feast of Unleavened Bread" in the Torah, which two days are also called "feasts", (for the seventh day is also called a feast in Exodus 13:6), it is shown herein that both the first and the seventh days were called the Passover. Eventually the whole week became known as Passover and-or Unleavened Bread and the two terms became more or less interchangeable as they are today. But in the context above the author plainly states that it was already the days of Unleavened Bread when Peter was thrown into prison. Herod therefore had intended to bring Peter forth to the people at the same time of the custom we read about in the Gospel accounts, where Bar-Abbas was released in the custom of the release, (Atzeret-Exodion), which was the last day, the seventh day, the final "feast day" of Passover Unleavened Bread. If therefore one reads the author as calling the seventh day, "the Passover", then "with" or "amidst", (μετα), makes perfect sense all by itself because the final Passover had not yet occurred when Herod cast Peter into prison, (for it was yet during the days of Unleavened Bread). In other words the author is calling the seventh day of Unleavened Bread, "the Passover", meaning that both the first day and the last day were called, "the Passover", (as well as the whole feast).
Acts 12:3-4
3 And when he saw that it pleased the Yhudim, he proceeded to seize Peter also: and these were the days of Unleavened Bread.
4 And when he had taken him, he put him in prison and delivered him over to four quaternions of soldiers to guard him, intending with-amidst the Passover to bring him forth to the people.
You all therefore do terribly err because the final day of the feast is called the feast of Meshiah as even called by some Jews and celebrated as such to this day: and it is the day in which the Sea of Reeds is parted and the sons of Yisrael pass|over into the Sanctuary of the Father, (Exodus 15:11-19, (see specifically Exodus 15:16, 17)).
Yup ok...but
Preparation day...passover...7days of unleavened bread...first fruits...Easter...
All begin in the morning...and then the evening...and then the morning--day numbered as completed
That has already been answered in this thread long ago but you choose not to believe the scripture. What else therefore can I say? The truth is the truth: an evening and a morning are a yom, no matter whether you see a yom as a minute, an hour, a twelve-hour period, or a twenty-four hour day, that is the precedent laid out six times for us in the first chapter of Genesis. Moreover it has also already been explained that evening time commences when "the women go forth to draw water", (Gen 24:11), which in John 4:6-7 is about the sixth hour of the day, and thus an evening is six hours and a morning is six hours and the evening comes first according to the scripture. Everything is divided in the midst because Elohim divided the light from the darkness. In my understanding the technical calendar day changes at midday in the clear heat of the brilliant rays of the sun over head and there is no night or darkness in the six yamim-hours of the spoken Word creation.
Yup evening needs daylight diminishing into night...notice the day was not counted or numbered at that point because morning had not yet come...morning ends the previous day
yup...drawing water at the end of daylight however is not the end of the calendar day...but the end of the first part of that day hence evening comes first then the night and then the morning and now finally the day is counted as complete...
Oh...so you have a personal understanding differing from scripture and your tradition...assuming you are Jewish?
I'm trying to explain my understanding of the scripture which is why I am quoting the scripture to make my points. Why would I knowingly present an understanding that is contrary to the scripture? However everyone seems to understand the scripture differently, (and that is all I meant by what I said). In your first two responses herein above we are close but the morning is a six hour period, (in terms of a twelve hour day), and the evening comes first no matter what you consider a yom to be, (Gen 1:5, 8, 13, 19, 23, 31). Moreover Meshiah was crucified the sixth hour, (John 19:14), which is the third hour of the shabuim, (Mark 15:25), and in the place from John he calls it the Preparation of the Passover because it is the very end of the Preparation, (not "the Preparation of the Jews", but simply, "the Preparation", (of the Passover)).
John 19:14
14 And it was the Preparation of the Passover, about the sixth hour: and he said to the Yhudim, Behold, your King!
Why does he not say "the Preparation of the Jews" in this place but says so later in the same passage?
John 19:42
42 Therefore because of the Preparation of the Yhudim, (for the tomb was nigh at hand), they laid Yeshua there.
At this point it is no longer the Preparation of the true Hebrew Calendar but it is still "the Preparation of the Yhudim", (hint, hint). Luke explains this even further, (if you understand the meaning of epiphosko).
G2020 ἐπιφώσκω epiphosko (e-piy-fō'-skō) v.
to begin to grow light.
[a form of G2017]
KJV: begin to dawn, X draw on
"epi-phosko" ~ "upon-light" ~ "first-light" (dawning, as a verb but also a name)
Luke 23:54
54 και ημερα ην παρασκευης και σαββατον επεφωσκεν
54 And the day was the Preparation and the Shabbat firstlight.
That day was both the Preparation and the Shabbat firstlight.
The Shabbat firstlight is the six hours which constitute the evening time.
The Shabbat firstlight commences at about the sixth hour of the day, (sundial time).
That day was therefore the Preparation in the morning time, (which is six hours), and the Shabbat firstlight in the evening time, (which is six hours), and thus two halves of two different days: the Preparation, (second half of the Preparation which is the morning time), and the Shabbat, (first half of Shabbat which is the evening time). I know it sounds crazy but this is why practically no one understands these things. Whether you believe it or not there are no discrepancies in my understanding of the entire Gospel record, and not because I ignore anything, but because I have been brought by the Word into the understanding which I hold.
Will keep it in mind...
:thumb: It is well worth it to search the scripture and see if these things be true.
Being of Israel isn't a strictly genetic thing. I know many would like to think so- but it isn't.
Not on the Sabbath I won't.
1. We have no interest in "establishing authority" over non-Jews. I have an interest in making it clear who that book belongs to.
2. My point is that to take the Hebrew Bible, which includes many sections about the Israelites misbehaving and being admonished for it by God or the prophets, and use it as a basis for antisemitic thinking, is unfair and absurd.
Ok...is it over now?
Do you begin your affliction at noon on the 9th or when the sunsets which is then the 10th...?
His people?...I mean the Sabbath was made for man but you'd think it belonged to jews talking to them...
Well considering it was Judah who thought to sell his brother Joseph into slavery and it was the tribe Judah in which a conspiracy was found and it was Judah that drove Israel into idolatry and civil war by overtaxing its brothers to worship at the temple in Jerusalem you can see why maybe it aint always good to follow their traditions...as even He called them out on it...
Sunset of the ninth, which is the start of the tenth.
The commandments, including the Sabbath, were given to Israel. There is nothing complicated about it.
When talk of our traditions, we are not talking about idol worship. You know that full well.
When an American says "American Traditions", is he talking about crime or racism?
Wick Stick
Well-known member
I thought that would be my line to you. Being "of Israel" (not to be confused with "of Judah") is entirely a matter of adoption today.
When דּבר־יהוה came to Jeremiah, He said that Israel had been given a bill of divorcement. And, when He came to Hosea, He called Israel לא עמּי
Israel was destroyed, beyond the point of even being a people. And yet...
Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God.
It didn't happen overnight. The LORD sent His מּלאכים out into the field, as reapers, and they gathered the harvest, performing adoptions in every river, stream, or mikvah they could find.
And the staff of Israel, and the staff of Judah, were combined, because they also brought the entirety of the שאר of Judah who had not bowed the knee, through the water. Through the waters of adoption, and out of Judah - not esteeming their genealogies too highly - and into Israel.
As for the rest of the House of Judah, they had their Day of Judgment. Israel, whose eyes and ears were healed to the point they could see and hear the prophets, heeded the warning, and left Judah high and dry, just before the axe fell at the root of that tree.
And whatever little bit of chaff escaped the fires, רבי עקיבא was nice enough to round up, and anoint a man of perdition for them as משיחַ, so that they might follow him into perdition.
I know that Christians want to be the True Israel (TM). And they want to have that without any obligations.
I know you are convinced of this- but seriously: do you expect to convince a Jew of this?
So if sunset of one day is always the start of the next... why not just say begin your afflictions on the 10th?
Obviously it being like a sabbath means it is not a normal weekly sabbath so He had to be specific and give further instruction...it is not a weekly sabbath just as it is not the norm to start the days at sunset...so He specified with additional instruction
A Talmudic argument. You are doing well.
So if it doesn't say that a holiday or Sabbath starts in the evening- proof by absence. If it does say- then it must be an exception to the general rule. Seems you have all bases covered here.
So He lied when He clarified that the Sabbath was made for man...not just Jews or Israel...
The irony that of all the commandments it is the only one to articulate it is also given to the non Israelite...and even animals
Sabbath was instituted at creation...adam was not a jew nor an israelite...
Is he talking about why America fell? Lost its favor and the blessing of the Creator who gave it inalienable rights? He will have to include materialism imperialism and bringing worship to the first beast as it says in Rev 13... And if he is honest he can call it idolatry too...
Believe it or not jews do not have a monopoly of counterfeiting Him His ways...