Jesus is God.

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Define begotten.

H3205 Strong's Concordance in Psalms 2:7
yalad: to bear, bring forth, beget
Original Word: יָלַד
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: yalad
Phonetic Spelling: (yaw-lad')
Short Definition: father


G1080 Strong's Concordance in Hebrews 1:5
gennaó: to beget, to bring forth
Original Word: γεννάω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: gennaó
Phonetic Spelling: (ghen-nah'-o)
Short Definition: I beget, bring forth, give birth to
Definition: I beget (of the male), (of the female) I bring forth, give birth to.

Israel was the firstborn of the Father by adoption, Jesus was the firstborn of the Father by a woman.
 

KingdomRose

New member
God the Father grants powers and authority to his divine creator Sons. As Jesus has a Father, he is the Father of his own creation. Jesus is God to us.

Huh? Can we go by what the Bible says? Jesus created in collusion with his Father. He received the power to create FROM THE FATHER, JEHOVAH. Jesus gave all credit for his actions to the Father. Jesus included humans, who he had a hand in creating, when he said that Jehovah is the true God and ONLY JEHOVAH SHOULD BE GIVEN SACRED SERVICE AS GOD. He quoted Deuteronomy 6:13 (where Jehovah's name appears in Hebrew) when he spoke to the Devil at Luke 4:8. Do you disagree with him?
 

KingdomRose

New member
No he said we all have a Father God and that God is Love. Jesus was the son of God. God is the name that all names hang including Jehovah, Krishna you name it they all hang on God the unknown that no man has seen.

Jesus didn't say he was the son of Jehovah. He told the Jews you do not know my father because his Father was God and he is the son of God and God is Love

Thats why he is the name above all names and salvation is for all men

Jesus certainly DID say he was the Son of Jehovah. Any Bible reader can see that. Jesus' name is above all names---with the exception of the One who GAVE him that honor! Duh.

God is not Krishna, Vishnu, Amun-Ra, Odin, Jupiter or David Koresh. He is JEHOVAH. (Psalm 83:18, KJV; John 17:3; John 20:17)
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Jesus certainly DID say he was the Son of Jehovah. Any Bible reader can see that. Jesus' name is above all names---with the exception of the One who GAVE him that honor! Duh.

God is not Krishna, Vishnu, Amun-Ra, Odin, Jupiter or David Koresh. He is JEHOVAH. (Psalm 83:18, KJV; John 17:3; John 20:17)

Jer 23:5 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD[YHVH], that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a King shall reign and prosper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth.
Jer 23:6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he[the Branch] shall be called, THE LORD[YHVH] OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
thanks but where in the new testament did jesus call God Jehovah? ive looked but cant find it

In the word Jehovah the "J" is substituted for the Hebrew letter "yod" and the vowels were added by men.

The term "LORD" is the English substitute for Yod Heh Vav Heh (YHVH).
 

KingdomRose

New member
thanks but where in the new testament did jesus call God Jehovah? ive looked but cant find it

That is because translators of the Christian Greek Scriptures chose to leave it out. The fact remains: Matthew made more than a hundred quotations from the Hebrew Scriptures. Where these quotations included the divine name [YHWH] he would have been obliged to faithfully include the Tetragrammaton in his Hebrew Gospel account. It was according to some other ungodly practice of that time that when the Gospel of Matthew was translated into Greek, the Tetragrammaton was left untranslated!

ALL the writers of the New Testament quoted verses from the Hebrew text or from the Septuagint where the divine name appears. For example....in Peter's speech in Acts 3:22 a quotation is made from Deuteronomy 18:15 where the Tetragrammaton appears in a papyrus fragment of the Septuagint dated to the first century B.C. As a follower of Christ, Peter used God's name, Jehovah. When Peter's speech was put on record the Tetragrammaton was here used according to the practice during the first century B.C. and also A.D. Some time during the SECOND OR THIRD CENTURY A.D. the scribes removed the Tetragrammaton from both the Septuagint and the Christian Greek Scriptures and replace it with Kyrios, 'Lord' or Theos, 'God'. (Appendix of the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, p. 1564)

It stands to reason that Jesus would have used his Father's name AT LEAST when he quoted the Hebrew Scriptures. He certainly would not have succumbed to the silly superstition of the Jewish religious leaders to not use God's name because they didn't want to take it in vain! He knew that the Father wanted people to use his name (Exodus 3:15). When confronting the Devil in the 4th chapter of Luke, Jesus quoted from Deuteronomy 6:13 & 16, where God's name is included. He quoted a lot from the O.T., undoubtedly using his Father's name where it existed in the Hebrew text.

He said, at John 17:6,26, that he had "made your [Jehovah's] name manifest," and he would continue to do so.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
About the 13th century the term "Jehovah" appeared when Christian scholars took the consonants of "Yahweh" and pronounced it with the vowels of "Adonai." This resulted in the sound "Yahowah," which has a Latinized spelling of "Jehovah." The first recorded use of this spelling was made by a Spanish Dominican monk, Raymundus Martini, in 1270.

(catholic.com/quickquestions/is-gods-name-yahweh-or-jehovah)​
 

jzeidler

New member
I'll tell you why. Because, when Joseph of Arimathea took him off the cross, he realized that he was still alive. He laid him in his tomb not to call any unwanted attention and went to bring his colleague Nicodemus to help him to remove Jesus into another place where they could take care of Jesus' wounds. So, when Mary Magdalene went to see the sepulcher she saw that the tomb was empty. An empty tomb is not proof that Jesus rose but that he was raised from that tomb; and this happened about an hour or two that he had been set there to rest. Don't forget that Joseph was a secret disciple of Jesus who did with Nicodemus every thing in secret.

So you think that Jesus somehow survived crucifixion and a spear to the heart? You do realize that is totally impossible and historically inaccurate. Romans never allowed for an accident during a crucifixion. Either they would break their legs, spear them through the heart, set them on fire, sic dogs upon them, leave them up there till they totally decay, or many other horrific things. There is absolutely no way Jesus was coming off that cross alive. Any other theory is pure ignorance of fact and history.

So your whole theory is totally flawed from the beginning but for kicks and giggles I'll dive into the other part of your theory. You say that they moved jesus' body. How in the world are two untrained Jews going to move a body under the watchful eyes of around 100 trained Roman soldiers who were watching the tomb specifically for that very thing?

Your theory scoffs at history and fact. Your theory is absolute lunacy.
 

Apple7

New member
You require more study...

You require more study...

Whose power is the world lying in? (I John 5:19)


1 John 5.18 – 19

οιδαμεν οτι πας ο γεγεννημενος εκ του θεου ουχ αμαρτανει αλλ ο γεννηθεις εκ του θεου τηρει αυτον και ο πονηρος ουχ απτεται αυτου οιδαμεν οτι εκ του θεου εσμεν και ο κοσμος ολος εν τω πονηρω κειται

Oidamen hoti pas ho gegennēmenos ek tou Theou ouch hamartanei all' ho gennētheis ek tou Theou tērei auton kai ho ponēros ouch haptetai autou oidamen hoti ek tou Theou esmen kai ho kosmos holos en tō ponērō keitai

We know that everyone being born from God does not sin, but The One having been born from God guards him, and The Evil One does not touch him. We know that we are of God, and the whole world lies in the power of The Evil One.


This passage, in 1 John 5, informs the reader that Satan (the Evil One) cannot do anything to the people of God.

Juxtaposed to this very succinct proclamation of The Devil’s impotence, is the assertion that the entire world is subjected to his ‘power’ (i.e. demons, as proclaimed throughout scripture).

Clearly, Satan is bound….but his demons are not.

Simple Biblical truth.
 

Prizebeatz1

New member
How do we justify the idea that Jesus is God when we have the following verse from Luke 18:19? "Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good--except God alone."
 

marhig

Well-known member
Jesus isn't God, there's no God the son in the Bible. Not once. God would have made sure something as important as that that was there if it was true. Jesus is the son of God, as the Bible says.

John 5

I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Also, God is the God of Jesus, as it clearly shows in the verse below.

John 20

Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

There are many verses like this. Jesus was in the express image of God, because the spirit of God was seen fully in him. Because he laid down his life to bring God to others and didn't live by his will, but by the will of God. This world had nothing in him and Satan couldn't touch him because he denied him completely never sinning once! Jesus overcame Satan and the world and he helps us to do the same if we're willing to give up our lives for God and love and obey him.
 
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