Epoisses
New member
The Spirit of the law or God's love is what is written in the heart. God doesn't write two tablets of stone in our heart. The law written in stone is said to be a ministry of death and condemnation 2Cor. 3.
Your opinion on God’s Law.
- Thread starter Jacob
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The Spirit of the law or God's love is what is written in the heart. God doesn't write two tablets of stone in our heart. The law written in stone is said to be a ministry of death and condemnation 2Cor. 3.
Obeying God's commands is not what is wrong. What is wrong is that people don't, and that is called sin. The penalty for breaking the Law is there. And the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23 NASB). Has the penalty for breaking God's Law been taken out of the way?
As for the new covenant, it has already come, about 2000 years ago.
Jeremiah 31:31-34 NASB - 31 "Behold, days are coming," declares the LORD, "when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, 32 not like the covenant which I made with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, although I was a husband to them," declares the LORD. 33 "But this is the covenant which I will make with the house of Israel after those days," declares the LORD, "I will put My law within them and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 34 "They will not teach again, each man his neighbor and each man his brother, saying, 'Know the LORD,' for they will all know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them," declares the LORD, "for I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more."
Epoisses
New member
You're not a Christian.
Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace. Gal. 5:4
I am not justified by law. No one is. That people would think they are is what Paul was addressing.
IMJerusha
New member
It boils down to the fact that just because one is a believer in Yeshua, he/she doesn't sin anymore; that we can no longer be tempted to sin. And what is it that defines sin for us?...God's Law. We can't honestly believe that Yeshua is not obedient to the Father any longer. Of course He is and as He is our example as High Priest, we too, as an expression of our love and the work of the Ruach in us, are also obedient. Yeshua is not our license but rather our liberty which means our choice...our ability to choose. If we drink the maddening wine of adultery, we had best be prepared to drink the wine of God's fury as well in the presence of the holy angels and of the Lamb. Consider Revelation 14:12 which states that escape of God's fury "calls for patient endurance on the part of the saints who obey God's commandments and remain faithful to Yeshua."
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heir
TOL Subscriber
What extremes some will go to not answer a simple question. Pathetic.
OP presents a false dichotomy, presenting an "either, or" scenario when the Bible teaches that the law has distinct purposes depending on a man's status in Jesus Christ, as Nick describes.
Are you saying you believe the Law has more than one purpose?
PneumaPsucheSoma
TOL Subscriber
What's pathetic is your ignorant and heretical false doctrines and your lack of knowledge of your own language and the inspired languages of scripture that leave you unable to see that I very explicitly answered your question and exposed your false belief.
You don't know what sin is. You also don't know what most other words actually mean, though you use them constantly in some form with some replacement meaning you have to insist is accurate because you're an arrogant entitled princess deluded by her own false English perceptions.
If you don't know the basic difference between Greek articular/anarthrous nouns and English definite/indefinite article nouns, you can't even understand your KJVO text from its translators.
Your pride of life causes you to think your gnosis (knowledge) is the pinnacle of truth, when it's just puffed you up. If only you had love and faith, the former abounding in epignosis (knowledge) instead of your puffed up gnosis; with the latter being a synonym for faith.
You're clueless, and despising anyone who would dare challenge your dumbed-down false doctrines because of your cognitive dissonance. Self-righteous, thinking it's the imputed righteousness of God.
SonOfCaleb
Active member
No it is not. And there's no scripture anywhere in the Bible that supports such a position.
Paul said in Hebrews 7:22 "Jesus has accordingly become the guarantee of a better covenant".
1 Corinthians 9:21 "To those without law I became as without law, although I am not without law toward God but under law toward Christ, in order to gain those without law."
In fact Jeremiah prophesied this new law covenant at Jeremiah 31:31-34 "“Look! The days are coming,” declares Jehovah, “when I will make with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah a new covenant. 32 It will not be like the covenant that I made with their forefathers on the day I took hold of their hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, ‘my covenant that they broke, although I was their true master,’ declares Jehovah.”
33 “For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days,” declares Jehovah. “I will put my law within them, and in their heart I will write it. And I will become their God, and they will become my people.”
34 “And they will no longer teach each one his neighbor and each one his brother, saying, ‘Know Jehovah!’ for they will all know me, from the least to the greatest of them,” declares Jehovah. “For I will forgive their error, and I will no longer remember their sin".
The principles of the Mosaic Law of course still have validity. But the letter of the Mosaic Law no longer needs to be observed by Christians as attested to by Paul. If the Mosaic Law was valid the early Christians in 1AD would have continued to observe the Mosaic Law. All the available evidence in the Bible as well as secularly show a non observance of the Mosaic Law. In fact the heated debate that occurred between Paul and fellow Christians over the circumcision issue recorded in Romans 2:25, is further proof of the Mosaic Law being defunct, which was also covered in numerous letters by Paul to the congregations in Galatia and Corinth.
Not exactly. It plays different roles depending on a man's status in Jesus Christ.
You have an interesting perspective. I hope in all points you can give your reason from scripture, without a reasoning about the context for scripture that is inappropriate.
I don't know what you mean by new law covenant.
I believe God used Jeremiah to let us know of the coming of a new covenant, about 2000 years ago. Circumcision is not required of Gentiles.
Paul spoke of the proper use of the Law in 1 Timothy 1.
I don't know why people say the Law has come to an end. And I believe salvation has always been by faith, not by Law.
Such as?
SonOfCaleb
Active member
The law wasn't faulty. Neither was it imperfect. It did after all come direct from God.
It was the Pharisee's who made the law cumbersome and misused it. The Israelite's disobeyed the Law, ignored it, or forgot about it. They polluted pure worship with the religious practices of other nations. And they betrayed the Law in other ways as well. In fact when the remnant returned from Babylon to rebuild the Temple in Jerusalem many of them were not conversant in the law at all! It had to be taught to them by Ezra. By their actions alone they held the law in contempt and thus in many respects showed contempt for God the Law Giver.
Also Christs sacrifice doesn't remove our inherit sinfulness in the same way 'sin' offerings didn't remove the inherent sinfulness of the Israelite's.
Christ hasn't changed the means of salvation, it has always been by grace through faith. Abel received grace through faith.
SonOfCaleb
Active member
Paul says the Mosaic Law was symbolically nailed to the stake Christ died on at Col 2:14 "and erased the handwritten document that consisted of decrees and was in opposition to us. He has taken it out of the way by nailing it to the torture stake". This verse refers to the 'New Law Covenant that supersedes the Mosaic Law, ergo the "Law of Christ".
Hebrews 7:12 "For since the priesthood (Jesus is the head of this priesthood)is being changed, it becomes necessary to change the Law as well".
Hebrews 9:15 "That is why he is a mediator of a new covenant, in order that because a death has occurred for their release by ransom from the transgressions under the former covenant, those who have been called may receive the promise of the everlasting inheritance".
The question is what is law in relation to the new covenant? Is there a new covenant law as there was a law with the old covenant?
heir
TOL Subscriber
:rotfl: You are a joke! Just look at how far you will go to not answer the simplest question.
The Bible says it does. Israel was to be set apart from the rest of the world. And doing certain things in the law separated them. Unless you think it is immoral to have a wool coat in winter with the rest of your clothes.
Paul said nothing in Hebrews. But that can be another thread.
Don't apply things in red letters, or outside of Paul's letters to you. There is no "Israel" today. The new Covenant will be with the House of Judah and the House of Israel (Tet's tribes). They will be united and under the King on earth. They will keep his statutes and he writes them on their hearts. Judah and Israel. Not you or me.